2024
l
2025
Preparación para el
examen A C T
®
Contenido
y
Examen A C T de práctica completo, incluyendo
el examen de redacción opcional
y
Información sobre las secciones de redacción y
opción múltiple
y
Estrategias para tomar el examen
y
Qué esperar el día del examen
www.act.org
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 2 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
Contenido
Un mensaje para los estudiantes 2
Información general del examen A C T 2
Estrategias para tomar el examen 3
Comportamientos prohibidos en el centro
de examen 6
Contenido de las secciones del examen
A C T 6
Cómo hacer los exámenes de práctica 6
Secciones de práctica de opción
múltiple 13
Examen de redacción de práctica 54
Documento de respuestas de
práctica 57
Cómo calicar los exámenes de
opción múltiple 65
Calicación del examen de redacción de
práctica 71
Próximos pasos 74
Un mensaje para los estudiantes
Este documento es un primer paso importante a medida que te preparas para la universidad
y tu carrera profesional.
Esta información está diseñada para ayudarte a dar lo mejor de ti en el examen A C T para
obtener la admisión en institutos de educación superior y universidades. Se incluyen
consejos útiles y estrategias para tomar el examen, así como un examen ACT de práctica
completo, con preguntas obsoletas de exámenes anteriores proporcionadas en fechas
de examen anteriores en centros de examen de A C T. También se incluye un examen de
redacción de práctica, un documento de respuestas de ejemplo, claves de respuestas e
instrucciones para que te caliques tú mismo.
Lee este documento detenidamente y toma los exámenes de práctica con bastante
anticipación al día del examen. De esa manera, estarás familiarizado con las materias de los
exámenes, qué miden y las estrategias que puedes usar para dar lo mejor de ti en el día del
examen.
Te recomendamos considerar también el curso ocial de ritmo determinado por el
estudiante A C T
®
(The Ofcial ACT
®
Self-Paced Course), respaldado por Kaplan
®
para aprender
el contenido del examen y estrategias en un salón de clases virtual.
Para ver todas nuestras opciones de preparación para el examen, visita
www.act.org/the-act/testprep.
Información general del
examen A C T
El examen A C T consiste en cuatro secciones de
opción múltiple—inglés, matemáticas, lectura y
ciencias, con un examen de redacción opcional.
Algunos institutos de educación superior y
universidades requieren o aceptan las calicaciones
de redacción de A C T, por lo que puedes considerar
tomar la sección de redacción.
Examen Preguntas
Minutos por
examen
Inglés 75 45
Matemáticas 60 60
Lectura 40 35
Ciencias 40 35
Redacción
(opcional)
1 ensayo 40
Después del examen de ciencias debes esperar
tomar un examen de opción múltiple más corto que
cubre una de las materias anteriores. Los resultados
del quinto examen ayudan a desarrollar futuras
preguntas para el examen y no se reejarán en las
calicaciones, así que haz tu mejor esfuerzo.
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 3 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
Estrategias para tomar el
examen
Estrategias para el examen A C T
Cada sección de opción múltiple contiene preguntas
con cuatro o cinco respuestas entre las cuales
puedes elegir la respuesta correcta o la mejor
respuesta.
Si no completas todas tus secciones y quieres volver
a hacer el examen, tendrás que volver a registrarte y
pagar por una nueva fecha de examen. Una vez que
tengas acceso al contenido del examen, no puedes
solicitar un cambio de la fecha de examen.
Estrategias para prepararte para el examen A C T
9
Familiarízate con el contenido de las secciones.
Revisa la información de este documento. Observa
cuáles áreas de contenido conforman la proporción
más grande de las secciones. Los temas incluidos
en cada área de contenido son ejemplos de temas
posibles, pero no incluyen todas las posibilidades.
9
Actualiza tu conocimiento y aptitudes en las
áreas de contenido.
Revisa las áreas de contenido que has estudiado,
pero que no recuerdas bien. Refresca tu
conocimiento en las áreas de contenido que forman
las porciones más grandes del examen.
9
Estudia las áreas de contenido con las que no
estás familiarizado.
Si no estás familiarizado con algunas áreas de
contenido del examen A C T, considera realizar
estudios en esas áreas antes de tomar el examen.
Sugerencias para tomar las secciones de
opción múltiple
9
Distribuye tu tiempo.
Es importante que tengas suciente tiempo para
leer los pasajes/preguntas y decidir tus respuestas.
Para cada sección, resta el número de minutos
que estimas que pasarás leyendo rápidamente los
pasajes o leyendo la información proporcionada,
luego divide el total de los minutos restantes
permitidos entre el número de preguntas para
determinar el tiempo estimado que debes dedicar a
cada pregunta. Si es posible, dedica menos tiempo
a cada pregunta y usa el resto del tiempo permitido
para una sección para revisar tu trabajo y regresar a
las preguntas de esa sección que te parecieron más
difíciles.
Los límites de tiempo establecidos para cada sección
dan casi a todos los estudiantes suciente tiempo
para contestar todas las preguntas. Sin embargo,
distribuye tu tiempo evitando usar demasiado
tiempo en un pasaje o tratando de encontrar la
respuesta a un problema especíco. Pasa a otras
preguntas y regresa al problema pendiente si te
queda tiempo.
9
Lee detenidamente las instrucciones.
Antes de comenzar cada sección, lee las
instrucciones detenidamente.
y
Las secciones de inglés, lectura y ciencias piden
la mejor respuesta. Lee y considera todas las
respuestas y selecciona la que responda mejor
a la pregunta.
y
La sección de matemáticas pide la respuesta
correcta. Puedes deducir la respuesta que
piensas que es la correcta y buscarla entre
las opciones que se dan. Si tu respuesta no se
encuentra entre las opciones proporcionadas,
vuelve a leer la pregunta y considera todas las
opciones de respuesta.
9
Lee detenidamente cada pregunta.
Necesitas entender exactamente lo que se te pide
en cada pregunta. Algunas preguntas requerirán
que realices varios pasos para encontrar la respuesta
correcta o la mejor respuesta, mientras que otras se
podrán contestar más rápidamente.
9
Contesta primero las preguntas fáciles.
Una buena estrategia es contestar las preguntas
fáciles y saltarte las que te parezcan difíciles.
Después de contestar las preguntas fáciles, regresa
y responde las preguntas más difíciles si tienes
tiempo.
9
Usa la lógica en preguntas más difíciles.
Cuando regreses a las preguntas más difíciles,
trata de usar la lógica para eliminar las respuestas
incorrectas. Compara las opciones de respuestas
entre sí y observa cuál es la diferencia. Tales
diferencias pueden proporcionarte pistas sobre lo
que la pregunta requiere. Elimina tantas respuestas
incorrectas como puedas, luego haz una conjetura
fundamentada de las respuestas restantes.
9
Contesta todas las preguntas.
Tus calicaciones de las secciones solo se basarán
en el número de preguntas que contestes
correctamente; no se te penalizará por adivinar.
Debes tratar de contestar todas las preguntas dentro
del tiempo que se permite para cada sección.
9
Revisa tu trabajo.
Si después de haber contestado todas las preguntas
de una sección aún tienes tiempo, regrésate y revisa
tu trabajo. Cuando se anuncie que el tiempo ha
terminado para una sección, ya no se te permitirá
que revises o que marques las respuestas de otra
sección.
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 4 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
Al hacer el examen con un documento de
respuestas:
9
Elige con precisión tus respuestas.
Si vas a tomar el examen A C T en papel, asegúrate de
seleccionar adecuadamente la respuesta deseada
en tu documento de respuestas. Las marcas en tu
documento de respuestas que se extiendan más
allá del óvalo elegido pueden ser calicadas como
incorrectas.
9
Borra completamente.
Si deseas cambiar una respuesta de opción múltiple
en papel, asegúrate de borrarla por completo. No
taches las respuestas ni uses un corrector líquido
o en cinta; debes usar una goma de borrar. Los
borrones o las marcas involuntarias pueden causar
errores en la calicación.
Prepárate
Prepárate con bastante anticipación al examen A C T.
y
Entérate de lo que debes esperar el día del
examen. Revisa este documento y visita
www.actstudent.org para obtener más
información, incluida una descripción general
de cada materia del examen, múltiples recursos
de preparación para el examen y una lista de
vericación completa para el día del examen.
y
Toma los exámenes de práctica en el orden que se
muestran en este cuadernillo, toma el tiempo en
cada uno de los exámenes y revisa tus respuestas
usando las claves de respuestas.
y
Descansa suciente la noche anterior a los
exámenes.
Nota: La mayoría de los procedimientos de este
documento se reeren a tomar un examen en una
fecha de examen nacional en un centro de examen
A C T (dentro de Estados Unidos, territorios de Estados
Unidos o Puerto Rico). Los procedimientos pueden
diferir un poco si tomas una aplicación diferente del
examen A C T.
El día del examen
Preséntate a tiempo
y
Para las fechas de examen nacionales, debes
reportarte en tu centro del examen asignado a la
hora indicada en tu boleto de admisión impreso
(usualmente a las 8:00 a.m.). Si llegas tarde, no
se te permitirá tomar el examen. Si tu boleto no
indica un salón de examen especíco, el personal
del examen o los letreros publicados te dirigirán.
Qué llevar
y
Una copia impresa de tu boleto de admisión. Tu
boleto contiene información importante que
ayuda a relacionar tu documento de respuestas
con el registro. Si perdiste tu boleto, puedes
imprimir otro a través de tu cuenta MyACT.
Si no llevas tu boleto el día del examen, tus
calicaciones podrían retrasarse.
y
Una identicación con fotografía aceptable. No se
te permitirá tomar el examen si tu identicación
no cumple los requisitos de A C T. Consulta los
requisitos de identicación de A C T en tu boleto o
en www.act.org/the-act/id.
y
Lápiz del número 2. Lleva lápices N.º 2 con punta
y buenas gomas de borrar (no se permiten lápices
mecánicos ni bolígrafos). No lleves ningún otro
instrumento para escribir. No se te permitirá
usarlos.
Nota: En los centros internacionales de aplicación
del examen se proporcionan pizarrones blancos y
marcadores no permanentes.
y
Reloj u otro dispositivo para medir el tiempo.
Puedes llevar un reloj para medir tu tiempo, pero
no debe tener alarma. Debes quitarte el reloj u
otro dispositivo para medir el tiempo y colocarlo
en tu escritorio mientras estés en el salón del
examen, de manera que permanezca a la vista del
personal durante el examen. Si tu alarma suena
durante el examen, se te pedirá que te retires y no
se calicarán tus respuestas.
y
Calculadora. Si deseas utilizar una calculadora
(no es necesario utilizarla), es tu responsabilidad
asegurarte de que la calculadora esté permitida
de acuerdo con la Política de calculadoras A C T..
y
Bocadillos. Puedes consumir bocadillos y bebidas
fuera del salón del examen durante el descanso.
Qué NO llevar
y
Libros de texto, diccionarios de idiomas
extranjeros o de cualquier tipo, papel para anotar,
notas u otras ayudas
y
Marcadores, bolígrafos o lápices de colores,
líquido/cinta de corrección
y
Ningún dispositivo electrónico que no sea una
calculadora permitida
y
Materiales de lectura
En el salón del examen
y
El personal del examen te dirigirá a tu asiento. Si
necesitas un escritorio para zurdos, habla con el
personal al llegar.
y
No salgas del salón del examen después de que te
admitan.
y
Sólo se permitirá que tengas en tu escritorio
lápices, gomas para borrar, una calculadora
permitida, tu reloj (si lo trajiste al centro de
examen) y tu boleto de papel.
y
Se te pedirá que guardes todas tus demás
pertenencias personales.
y
La hora para presentarte al examen será a las 8:00
a.m. El examen comenzará tan pronto como todos
los examinados que estén presentes a las 8:00
a.m. se hayan registrado y estén sentados.
y
Escucha atentamente todas las instrucciones que
lea el personal del examen.
y
Es importante que sigas todas las instrucciones al
pie de la letra.
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 5 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
y
Normalmente saldrás más o menos a las
12:35 p.m. si tomas el examen A C T (sin redacción),
o aproximadamente a la 1:35 p.m. si tomas el
examen A C T con redacción.
Para estudiantes aprobados para tomar
un examen en centros de exámenes
nacionales con tiempo y medio
El examen con tiempo y medio está disponible en
las secciones de redacción y de opción múltiple para
estudiantes con discapacidades diagnosticadas o
con dominio limitado del idioma inglés.
Si estás autorizado para tomar el examen con tiempo
y medio en un centro de examen nacional, tendrás
50% de tiempo adicional para terminar cada sección.
El A C T:
Examen Preguntas
Minutos por
examen
Inglés 75 70
Matemáticas 60 90
Lectura 40 55
Ciencias 40 55
Redacción
(opcional)
1 ensayo 60
Después del examen
Anulación de tu examen el día del examen
Si tienes que salir del centro del examen antes de
completar todos las secciones, debes decidir si
deseas que se calique tu examen o no y luego
informar tu decisión al personal del examen. Si no lo
haces, tu examen será calicado.
Si no completas todas tus secciones y quieres volver
a hacer el examen, tendrás que volver a registrarte y
pagar por una nueva fecha de examen. Una vez que
tengas acceso al contenido del examen, no puedes
solicitar un cambio de la fecha de examen.
Tomar el examen más de una vez
Si deseas volver a tomar el examen para aumentar
tu calicación, A C T calculará y reportará una
súper calicación para los estudiantes que hayan
tomado el examen A C T más de una vez. Esto
les da las universidades la opción de usar las
mejores calicaciones del estudiante de todas
las aplicaciones del examen, en lugar de las
calicaciones de un solo examen, para sus decisiones
sobre admisiones y becas.
Para obtener información sobre las calicaciones
combinadas visita www.act.org/the-act/superscore.
Para más información sobre cómo volver a tomar el
examen A C T, consulta www.act.org/the-act/retaking.
Tomar el examen más de una vez en la
misma aplicación
No puedes recibir calicaciones de más de un
examen que hayas tomado durante una fecha
programada de examen nacional o internacional.
Por ejemplo, puedes tomar el examen en sábado, en
una fecha autorizada que no sea sábado o en una
fecha de examen reprogramada, pero no en más de
uno de esos días en una fecha de examen particular.
Si se te admite y se te permite tomar el examen por
segunda vez, en una fecha de examen particular,
reportaremos solo las calicaciones del primer
examen. El segundo conjunto de calicaciones se
cancelará sin reembolso.
Solicitud de una copia de las preguntas y
respuestas de tu examen
En ciertas fechas de examen, puedes pedir (por
una cuota adicional) una copia de las preguntas
de opción múltiple utilizadas para determinar tus
calicaciones, una lista de tus respuestas y la clave
de respuestas. Si tomaste la sección de redacción,
también recibirás una copia de las instrucciones
para el ensayo, las pautas de calicación y las
calicaciones de tu ensayo.
Este servicio no está disponible para todas las fechas
de examen y está disponible únicamente para los
exámenes nacionales o exámenes especiales en
los Estados Unidos, territorios de Estados Unidos y
Puerto Rico. Aplican restricciones.
Si te interesa este servicio, revisa www.act.org/the-
act/tir para más detalles.
Comportamientos
prohibidos en el centro de
examen
Se proporcionó una lista de las conductas prohibidas
durante el proceso de inscripción. Las siguientes
conductas también pueden causar cancelación.
Recuerda lo siguiente:
y
No puedes llenar o alterar las respuestas a
ninguna de las preguntas de opción múltiple ni
continuar escribiendo o alterar el ensayo después
de que se indique que se agotó el tiempo. Esto
incluye arreglar marcas mal hechas.
y
No puedes mirar ninguna sección del examen
fuera del tiempo designado para ese examen.
y
No puedes acceder a ningún dispositivo
electrónico (aparte de la computadora y el ratón
que estás usando para hacer el examen en línea)
en ningún momento durante los exámenes o
durante los recesos. Todos los demás dispositivos
deben estar apagados y estar fuera de la vista
desde el momento en que que te dan entrada al
salón del examen hasta que te indiquen que te
puedes retirar.
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 6 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
y
No puedes prestar ni recibir ayuda de ninguna
manera. Esto incluye mirar el examen de otra
persona.
y
El examen es condencial y permanece así aun
después de terminar el examen. No puedes sacar
ningún material del salón del examen. No puedes
comentar ni compartir el contenido del examen,
las respuestas ni los números de identicación del
formulario del examen durante la administración
del examen, durante los descansos ni después del
examen.
y
No puedes divulgar las preguntas del examen
ni las respuestas de ninguna manera, en ningún
momento, incluyendo en redes sociales, en su
totalidad o en parte.
y
No se permite comer, beber ni utilizar material de
lectura en el salón del examen.
Si se te observa o se sospecha que estás involucrado
en una conducta prohibida, se te pedirá que te
retires y tu examen no se calicará.
Contenido de las secciones
del examen A C T
Sección de inglés
La sección de inglés consiste en varios ensayos
o pasajes, cada uno seguido de un conjunto de
preguntas de opción múltiple.
y
Algunas preguntas se reeren al pasaje en su
totalidad o a partes subrayadas o resaltadas del
pasaje y ofrecen varias alternativas para esa parte.
Tú decides cuál respuesta es la más apropiada
tomando en cuenta el contexto del pasaje.
y
Muchas preguntas ofrecen la opción de “NO
CHANGE” (NO CAMBIAR) el pasaje.
La sección de inglés te coloca en la posición de
un escritor que toma decisiones para revisar y
editar un texto. Los ensayos en diferentes géneros
proporcionan una variedad de situaciones retóricas.
Estos pasajes se seleccionan por su idoneidad para
evaluar las aptitudes de lenguaje y redacción, y
para reejar los intereses y las experiencias de los
estudiantes.
Se reportan cuatro calicaciones para el examen de
inglés: una calicación para la sección en general
y tres calicaciones de las categorías del reporte
con base en conocimiento y aptitudes especícas.
El porcentaje aproximado de la sección dedicada a
cada categoría del reporte es:
Producción de redacción (29-32%)
Esta categoría requiere que apliques tu
entendimiento del propósito y enfoque de un escrito.
y
Desarrollo del tema: demostrar un
entendimiento y control sobre los aspectos
retóricos de los textos. Identicar los propósitos
de las partes de los textos, determinar si un texto
o parte de un texto ha cumplido con su objetivo
previsto y evaluar la relevancia del material en
términos del enfoque de un texto.
y
Organización, unidad y cohesión: usar diferentes
estrategias para asegurar que un texto esté
lógicamente organizado, sea uido y tenga una
introducción y una conclusión efectivas.
Conocimiento de la lengua (15-17%)
Estas preguntas requieren que demuestres el uso
efectivo del lenguaje al asegurar una elección de
palabras precisa y concisa y mantener la consistencia
del estilo y tono.
Convenciones del inglés estándar (52-55%)
Estas preguntas requieren que apliques un
entendimiento de las convenciones de gramática del
inglés estándar, uso y mecánica del inglés estándar
para revisar y editar textos.
y
Estructura y formación de oraciones: aplicar
el entendimiento de la estructura y formación
de la oración en un texto y hacer revisiones para
mejorar la redacción.
y
Puntuación: reconocer los problemas comunes
con la puntuación del inglés estándar y hacer
revisiones para mejorar la redacción.
y
Uso: reconocer los problemas comunes con el uso
del inglés estándar en un texto y hacer revisiones
para mejorar la redacción.
Sugerencias para tomar la sección de
inglés
9
Presta atención al estilo de redacción que se usa
en cada pasaje.
Los pasajes cubren una variedad de temas y están
redactados en una variedad de estilos. Es importante
que tomes en cuenta el estilo de redacción que
se usa en cada pasaje. Al responder una pregunta,
asegúrate de entender el contexto de la misma.
Considera cómo la oración que contiene una porción
subrayada o resaltada encaja con las oraciones
circundantes y con el pasaje como un todo.
9
Examina las porciones subrayadas o resaltadas
del pasaje.
Antes de responder una pregunta con una porción
subrayada o resaltada, examina cuidadosamente lo
que está subrayado o resaltado en el texto. Considera
los elementos de redacción que se incluyen en cada
porción subrayada o resaltada.
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 7 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
y
Algunas preguntas te pedirán que bases tu
decisión en algún elemento especíco de la
escritura, como el tono o el énfasis que el texto
debe comunicar.
y
Algunas preguntas te indicarán que selecciones la
alternativa a la porción subrayada o resaltada que
NO es aceptable o que es LA MENOS aceptable.
Las respuestas opcionales de cada pregunta
contendrán cambios en uno o más de estos
elementos de la escritura.
9
Presta atención a las preguntas que no tienen
porciones subrayadas.
Se te harán algunas preguntas sobre una sección del
pasaje o sobre el pasaje como un todo, considerando
una situación retórica dada. Las preguntas de este
tipo frecuentemente están identicadas por un
número de pregunta ubicado en un recuadro que
se encuentra en el punto apropiado del pasaje o
mediante un asterisco resaltado en paréntesis.
Las preguntas sobre todo el pasaje se encuentran
al nal del pasaje. En el examen en papel, estas
preguntas se introducen mediante un recuadro
horizontal que contiene la siguiente instrucción:
“Las preguntas __ y __ se reeren al pasaje anterior
como un todo”. En el examen en línea, aparecerán
instrucciones similares arriba de las preguntas.
9
Nota las diferencias en las respuestas
opcionales.
Muchas de las preguntas de la sección involucran
más de un aspecto de redacción. Examina cada
respuesta opcional y determina cuál es su diferencia
con las otras. Ten cuidado de no elegir una respuesta
que corrija un error, pero que genere un error
diferente.
9
Determina cuál es la mejor respuesta.
Cuando una pregunta te pida que elijas la mejor
alternativa para una porción subrayada o resaltada,
considera el siguiente método:
y
Decide cómo la porción subrayada o resaltada se
pudiera expresar mejor en inglés escrito estándar
o en términos de la pregunta particular formulada.
~
Si la porción subrayada o resaltada es la mejor
respuesta, selecciona “NO CHANGE” (NO CAMBIAR).
~
Si no, revisa para ver si tu expresión es una de
las respuestas opcionales. Si no encuentras tu
expresión, selecciona la mejor de las respuestas
que se presentan.
y
En el caso de las preguntas indicadas por un
número en un recuadro o un asterisco resaltado
en paréntesis, decide cuál es la opción más
apropiada en términos de la pregunta formulada
o de la situación retórica indicada.
y
Vuelve a leer la oración usando la respuesta que
seleccionaste. Una vez que hayas seleccionado
la respuesta que te parece mejor, vuelve a leer la
oración u oraciones correspondientes del pasaje,
e inserta la respuesta seleccionada en el lugar
apropiado del texto para asegurarte de que es la
mejor respuesta dentro del contexto del pasaje.
Sección de matemáticas
La sección de matemáticas está diseñada para
evaluar las aptitudes matemáticas que los
estudiantes han adquirido típicamente en los cursos
que toman hasta el principio del grado 12.
La mayoría de las preguntas son autocontenidas.
Algunas preguntas pueden pertenecer a un
conjunto de varias preguntas (por ejemplo, cada una
acerca de la misma gráca o tabla).
El material que se cubre enfatiza las principales
áreas de contenido que son un requisito para el
desempeño satisfactorio en las matemáticas de
los cursos del primer año universitario. Se asume
el conocimiento de fórmulas básicas y aptitudes
de cálculo como antecedentes para resolver los
problemas, pero no se requiere recordar fórmulas
complejas ni cálculos extensos.
Nota: Puedes usar una calculadora permitida
en la sección de matemáticas. En www.act.org/
calculator-policy.html puedes encontrar detalles de
los modelos y funciones que se prohíben.
Se reportan nueve calicaciones para la sección de
matemáticas: una calicación para la sección en
general y ocho calicaciones de las categorías del
reporte con base en el conocimiento y aptitudes
especícas en matemáticas. El porcentaje
aproximado de la sección dedicada a cada categoría
del reporte es:
Preparación para matemáticas de nivel
superior (57-60%)
Esta categoría cubre las matemáticas más recientes
que los estudiantes están aprendiendo, empezando
cuando comenzaron a usar álgebra como una
manera general de expresar y resolver ecuaciones.
Esta categoría se divide en cinco subcategorías:
y
Número y cantidad (7-10%): demostrar
conocimiento de sistemas numéricos reales y
complejos. Razonar con cantidades numéricas
en muchas formas, incluyendo expresiones con
integrales y exponentes racionales así como
vectores y matrices.
y
Álgebra (12–15%): resolver, gracar y modelar
varios tipos de expresiones. Interpretar y usar
diferentes tipos de ecuaciones, como relaciones
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 8 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
lineales, polinomiales, radicales y exponenciales.
Encontrar soluciones a sistemas de ecuaciones,
incluso cuando son representados mediante
matrices simples y aplicar los resultados a
contextos del mundo real.
y
Funciones (12–15%): demostrar conocimiento de
las funciones: denición, notación, representación
y aplicación. Usar funciones, incluyendo las
funciones lineales, radicales, segmentadas,
polinomiales, exponenciales y logarítmicas.
Manipular y trasladar funciones, así como
interpretar y usar características importantes de
las grácas.
y
Geometría (12–15%): aplicar tu conocimiento
de guras y cuerpos sólidos, usando conceptos
tales como las relaciones de congruencia y
similitud o el área de una supercie y medición
de volúmenes. Aplicar tu entendimiento a objetos
compuestos y resolver valores faltantes en
triángulos, círculos y otras guras. Usar razones
trigonométricas y ecuaciones de secciones
cónicas.
y
Estadística y probabilidad (8–12%): describir el
centro y la dispersión de distribuciones. Aplicar
y analizar métodos de recolección de datos.
Entender y modelar las relaciones en datos
bivariados. Calcular probabilidades reconociendo
los espacios de muestreo relacionados.
Integración de aptitudes esenciales
(40-43%)
Esta categoría se centra en medir qué tan bien
puedes sintetizar y aplicar tus entendimientos y
aptitudes para resolver problemas más complejos.
Las preguntas te piden que abordes conceptos
como:
y
tasas y porcentajes
y
relaciones proporcionales
y
área, área supercial y volumen
y
promedio y mediana
y
expresión de números de diferentes maneras
Resolverás problemas no rutinarios que implican
combinar aptitudes en cadenas de pasos, aplicar
aptitudes en contextos variados, entender
conexiones y demostrar destreza.
Modelado
Esta categoría representa todas las preguntas que
implican producir, interpretar, entender, evaluar y
mejorar modelos. Cada pregunta también se cuenta
en otras categorías de matemáticas adecuadas del
reporte. Esta categoría es una medida general sobre
qué tan bien usas las aptitudes de modelado en
todos los temas de matemáticas.
Sugerencias para tomar la sección de
matemáticas
9
Si utilizas una calculadora, hazlo de manera
prudente.
Todos los problemas de matemáticas se pueden
resolver sin una calculadora. Muchos de ellos se
resuelven mejor sin calculadora. Usa tu buen
criterio para decidir cuándo usar y cuándo no usar
la calculadora. Por ejemplo, en algunos problemas
tal vez quieras realizar trabajo preliminar para
aclarar tus pensamientos sobre la pregunta antes de
comenzar a usar la calculadora.
9
Resuelve el problema.
Para encontrar las soluciones a los problemas,
generalmente realizarás trabajo preliminar. Tal vez
quieras revisar las respuestas opcionales después
de leer las preguntas. Sin embargo, trabajar al
revés desde las cinco opciones de respuesta puede
requerir mucho tiempo y puede no ser ecaz.
9
Busca tu solución entre las opciones de
respuesta.
Una vez que hayas resuelto el problema, busca la
respuesta que obtuviste entre las opcionales. Si
tu respuesta no está incluida entre las opcionales,
vuelve a leer detenidamente el problema para ver
si pasaste por alto información importante. Presta
mucha atención a la pregunta que se te hace. Si
debes seleccionar una ecuación, revisa si la ecuación
que piensas que es la mejor se puede transformar en
una de las respuestas opcionales proporcionadas.
9
Asegúrate de contestar la pregunta.
Las soluciones de muchas de las preguntas
involucran varios pasos. Asegúrate de que tu
respuesta tome en cuenta todos los pasos
necesarios. Con frecuencia, una opción de respuesta
es un resultado intermedio, no la respuesta nal.
9
Asegúrate de que tu respuesta sea razonable.
Algunas veces un error de cálculo da como resultado
una respuesta que no es prácticamente posible para
la situación que se describe. Siempre piensa en tu
respuesta y determina si es razonable.
9
Verica tu respuesta.
Puedes llegar a una solución incorrecta cometiendo
errores comunes en el proceso de resolución de
problemas. Si tienes tiempo restante antes de que
termine la sección de matemáticas, es importante
que vuelvas a leer las preguntas y que veriques tus
respuestas para asegurarte de que sean correctas.
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 9 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
Sección de lectura
La sección de lectura que mide tu habilidad de leer
con atención, razonar lógicamente sobre textos
usando evidencia e integrar información de varias
fuentes.
Las preguntas se centran en aptitudes de apoyo
mutuo que los lectores deben utilizar al estudiar
materiales escritos en una variedad de materias.
Especícamente, las preguntas te pedirán que:
y
determines las ideas principales
y
localices e interpretes detalles signicativos
y
entiendas secuencias de eventos
y
hagas comparaciones
y
comprendas las relaciones causa-efecto
y
determines el signicado de palabras, frases y
declaraciones que dependen del contexto
y
dibujes generalizaciones
y
analices la voz y el método del autor o narrador
y
analices armaciones y evidencia en argumentos
y
integres información de múltiples textos
La sección de lectura se compone de varias partes.
Algunas partes consisten en un pasaje en prosa largo
y otras consisten en pasajes en prosa cortos. Los
pasajes representan los niveles y las clases de textos
que comúnmente se encuentran en los planes de
estudio del primer año universitario.
Cada pasaje va precedido por un encabezado
que identica el autor y el origen y puede incluir
información de trasfondo importante para ayudarte
a entender el pasaje. Cada parte contiene un
conjunto de preguntas de opción múltiple. Estas
preguntas no evalúan la memorización de hechos
ajenos al pasaje o reglas de lógica formal, ni
contienen preguntas aisladas de vocabulario. En las
secciones que contienen dos pasajes cortos, algunas
de las preguntas tienen que ver con ambos pasajes.
Se reportan cuatro calicaciones para el examen de
lectura: una calicación para la sección en general
y tres calicaciones de las categorías del reporte
con base en conocimiento y aptitudes especícas.
Los reportes de calicaciones también incluyen un
indicador de comprensión de textos complejos. El
porcentaje aproximado de la sección dedicada a
cada categoría del reporte es:
Ideas y detalles clave (52-60%)
Esta categoría requiere que leas los textos
detenidamente para determinar las ideas y los
temas centrales; que resumas información e ideas
con precisión; y que demuestres comprensión de
las relaciones y saques inferencias y conclusiones
lógicas, incluida la comprensión de las relaciones
secuenciales, comparativas y de causa-efecto.
Elaboración y estructura (25-30%)
Estas preguntas te piden que:
y
determines el signicado de palabras y frases
y
analices la elección de palabras de un autor
retóricamente
y
analices la estructura del texto
y
comprendas el propósito y la perspectiva del autor
y
analices los puntos de vista de los personajes
y
interpretes las decisiones del autor retóricamente
y
diferencies entre varias perspectivas y fuentes de
información
Integración de conocimiento e ideas
(13-23%)
Esta categoría requiere que entiendas las
aseveraciones de los autores, diferencies entre
hechos y opiniones y uses evidencia para hacer
conexiones entre los diferentes textos que
están relacionados según el tema. Algunas
preguntas necesitarán que analices cómo los
autores construyen los argumentos y evalúes el
razonamiento y la evidencia de diferentes fuentes.
Información visual y cuantitativa en la
sección de lectura
Un pasaje puede ir acompañado de un elemento
como una gráca, gura o tabla que contiene
información pertinente para la tarea de lectura. En
el pasaje que contiene estos elementos visuales y
cuantitativos, algunas de las preguntas te pedirán
que identiques o interpretes información de la
gráca o que integres la información del pasaje y la
gráca para determinar la mejor respuesta.
Sugerencias para tomar la sección de
lectura
9
Lee cada pasaje detenidamente.
Antes de comenzar a contestar una pregunta, lee
el contenido detenidamente. Sé consciente de las
relaciones entre las ideas. Toma nota sobre las ideas
importantes de los pasajes.
9
Consulta los pasajes cuando contestes las
preguntas.
Encontrarás las respuestas a algunas de las
preguntas reriéndote a lo que se indica
explícitamente en el texto de los pasajes. Otras
preguntas requerirán que tú determines los
signicados implícitos y que saques conclusiones y
hagas comparaciones y generalizaciones. Considera
el texto antes de contestar cualquier pregunta.
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 10 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
Sección de ciencias
La sección de ciencias mide las aptitudes de
interpretación, análisis, evaluación, razonamiento
y resolución de problemas que se requieren en
las ciencias naturales. La sección presenta varios
escenarios cientícos auténticos, cada uno de ellos
seguido por preguntas de opción múltiple.
El contenido incluye biología, química, ciencias
de la Tierra y del espacio (por ejemplo, geología,
astronomía y meteorología) y física. No se requiere
un conocimiento avanzado de estas áreas, pero
necesitarás conocimiento previo adquirido en cursos
de ciencias introductorios generales para contestar
correctamente algunas de las preguntas.
La sección de ciencias se centra en la evaluación
multidimensional, con preguntas que evalúan el
contenido de ciencias en combinación con aptitudes
y prácticas de ciencias.
Las preguntas requieren que:
y
reconozcas y entiendas las características básicas
de la información proporcionada y los conceptos
relacionados con ella
y
examines críticamente la relación entre la
información proporcionada y las conclusiones
extraídas o las hipótesis desarrolladas
y
generalices a partir de información dada para
obtener nueva información, sacar conclusiones o
hacer predicciones
Nota: No se permite usar una calculadora en la
sección de ciencias.
Se reportan cuatro calicaciones para la sección de
ciencias: una calicación para la sección en general
y tres calicaciones de las categorías del reporte
con base en conocimiento, habilidades y práctica
cientícos. El porcentaje aproximado de la sección
dedicada a cada categoría del reporte es:
Interpretación de datos (40-50%)
Esta categoría te pide manipular y analizar datos
cientícos presentados en tablas, grácas y
diagramas cientícos (por ejemplo, reconocer
tendencias en datos, trasladar datos tabulares
a grácas, interpolar y extrapolar, y razonar
matemáticamente).
Investigación cientíca (20-30%)
Esta categoría te pide entender las herramientas
experimentales, procedimientos y diseño (por
ejemplo, identicar controles y variables), y
comparar, prolongar y modicar experimentos
(por ejemplo, predecir los resultados de ensayos
adicionales).
Evaluación de modelos, inferencias y
resultados experimentales (25-35%)
Estas preguntas te piden juzgar la validez de la
información cientíca y formular conclusiones y
predicciones con base en esa información (por
ejemplo, determinar cuál explicación para un
fenómeno cientíco es sustentada por nuevos
hallazgos).
La sección de ciencia presenta información en tres
formatos:
y
Representación de datos (25–35%): este formato
presenta material gráco y tabular similar al de
las revistas y textos de ciencias. Las preguntas
asociadas con este formato miden aptitudes
como reconocer relaciones entre datos en tablas
y grácas; interpolar y extrapolar; y trasladar datos
tabulares a grácas.
y
Resúmenes de investigación (45–60%): este
formato proporciona descripciones y resultados
de uno o más experimentos relacionados.
Las preguntas se centran en el diseño de los
experimentos y en la interpretación de los
resultados experimentales.
y
Puntos de vista conictivos (15–20%): este
formato presenta dos o más explicaciones del
mismo fenómeno cientíco que, debido a que se
basan en diferentes premisas o datos incompletos,
son inconsistentes uno con el otro. Las preguntas
se centran en la comprensión, análisis y
comparación de puntos de vista o hipótesis
alternativas.
Sugerencias para tomar la sección de
ciencias
9
Lee detenidamente el pasaje.
Antes de comenzar a contestar una pregunta,
lee el material cientíco que se te proporciona.
Es importante que leas todo el texto y examines
todas las tablas, grácas o guras. Puedes tomar
notas sobre las ideas importantes. Algunos de los
conjuntos de información describirán experimentos.
Debes considerar el diseño experimental, incluso
los controles y las variables, porque probablemente
las preguntas abordarán este componente de la
investigación cientíca.
9
Nota los diferentes puntos de vista en los
pasajes.
Algunos materiales presentarán puntos de vista
conictivos y las preguntas te pedirán que distingas
entre ellos. Puede ser útil tomar notas resumiendo
cada punto de vista de las partes especícas de la
sección.
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 11 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
Sección de redacción (opcional)
Si te inscribes para el examen A C T con redacción,
tomarás la sección de redacción después de que
termines las cuatro secciones de opción múltiple. Tu
calicación en la sección de redacción no afectará las
calicaciones de los exámenes de opción múltiple ni
tu calicación global.
La sección es un examen de 40 minutos que mide
tus aptitudes de escritura, especícamente las que
se enseñan en las clases de inglés de la escuela
secundaria y en los cursos de composición de primer
ingreso de la universidad.
La sección consiste en una instrucción para la
redacción que describe un tema complejo y
proporciona tres perspectivas diferentes sobre
el mismo. Se te pide que leas la instrucción y
escribas un ensayo en donde desarrolles tu propia
perspectiva sobre el tema. Tu ensayo debe analizar
la relación entre tu propia perspectiva y una o más
de las otras perspectivas. Puedes adoptar una de
las perspectivas proporcionadas en la instrucción
como la tuya o puedes introducir una que es
completamente diferente a las proporcionadas. Tu
calicación no se verá afectada por la perspectiva
que adoptes sobre el tema.
Se reportan cinco calicaciones para la sección
de redacción: una sola calicación a nivel de
materia reportada a una escala de 2 a 12 y cuatro
calicaciones de los dominios que se basan en una
rúbrica de calicación analítica. La calicación de
la materia es el promedio redondeado de las cuatro
calicaciones de los dominios. Los cuatro dominios
de redacción son:
Ideas y análisis
Las calicaciones de este dominio reejan la
habilidad de generar ideas productivas e interactuar
críticamente con múltiples perspectivas sobre
el tema en cuestión. Los escritores competentes
entienden el tema que se les invita a abordar,
el propósito de la redacción y la audiencia. Ellos
generan ideas que son relevantes a la situación.
Desarrollo y sustentación
Las calicaciones en este dominio reejan la
habilidad de debatir ideas, ofrecer razonamiento y
estimular un argumento. Los escritores competentes
explican y exploran sus ideas, discuten las
implicaciones e ilustran a través de ejemplos. Ellos
ayudan al lector a entender su manera de pensar
acerca del tema.
Organización
Las calicaciones en este dominio reejan la
habilidad de organizar ideas con claridad y propósito.
Las opciones de organización son integrales para
una redacción efectiva. Los escritores competentes
organizan su ensayo de una manera que demuestra
claramente la relación entre las ideas y guían al
lector durante su discusión.
Uso del lenguaje y convenciones
Las calicaciones en este dominio reejan
la habilidad de usar el lenguaje escrito para
transmitir argumentos con claridad. Los escritores
competentes hacen uso de las convenciones de
la gramática, sintaxis, uso de palabras y mecánica.
También están conscientes de su audiencia y ajustan
el estilo y tono de su redacción para expresarse
efectivamente.
Sugerencias para tomar la sección de
redacción
9
Distribuye tu tiempo.
Organiza tu tiempo de acuerdo con la experiencia
que tengas tomando exámenes de ensayos en la
escuela o de cuando hayas tenido que redactar
dentro de un tiempo limitado. Es poco probable que
tengas tiempo de hacer un borrador, revisar y pasar
en limpio tu ensayo.
9
Planica.
Antes de escribir, lee y considera detenidamente
todo el material de las instrucciones. Asegúrate de
entender el tema, las diferentes perspectivas sobre el
tema y tu tarea de redacción del ensayo.
Se incluyen preguntas de planicación con las
instrucciones, las cuales te ayudarán a analizar las
diferentes perspectivas y a desarrollar la tuya propia.
Usa estas preguntas para pensar críticamente en
las instrucciones y generar una respuesta efectiva.
¿Cómo organizarías y sustentarías mejor tus ideas en
un argumento escrito? Dedica tiempo a estructurar
o bosquejar tu respuesta.
Nota: Las preguntas de planicación son opcionales
y no se calicarán.
9
Escribe.
Establece el enfoque de tu ensayo siendo muy claro
en tu argumento y sus ideas principales.
y
Explica e ilustra tus ideas con razonamiento lógico
y ejemplos signicativos.
y
Debate la importancia de tus ideas: ¿cuáles son las
implicaciones de lo que tienes que decir y por qué
es importante considerar tu argumento?
Mientras escribes, pregúntate si tu lógica es clara,
si has sustentado tus aseveraciones y si has elegido
palabras precisas para expresar tus ideas.
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 12 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
9
Revisa tu ensayo.
Trata de redactar tu ensayo de la manera más
renada que puedas. Antes de que se termine el
tiempo, dedica unos minutos a revisar tu ensayo y
corregir cualquier error.
Si tomas el examen A C T en papel, asegúrate de
escribir tu ensayo de manera legible. Si encuentras
palabras que son difíciles de leer, vuelve a escribirlas.
Haz las correcciones y revisiones con pulcritud,
entre las líneas. No escribas en los márgenes, si
corresponde.
9
Practica.
Hay muchas maneras de prepararse para la sección
de redacción. Lee periódicos y revistas, escucha los
análisis de las noticias en línea, en la televisión o en el
radio, o participa en discusiones y debates pensando
detenidamente sobre otras perspectivas en relación
con la tuya.
Una buena manera de prepararte para la sección
de redacción es practicar redactando con diferentes
propósitos para diferentes lectores. La redacción que
realices en tus clases te ayudará, al igual que escribir
en un diario personal, historias, ensayos, editoriales u
otras cosas que escribas independientemente.
También es buena idea practicar escribiendo
dentro de un límite de tiempo. Hacer el examen de
redacción de práctica te dará una buena idea de
cuánta práctica adicional puedes necesitar. Puede
ser buena idea tomar la sección de redacción de
práctica, aunque no planees tomar el examen A C T
con redacción. Te ayudará a desarrollar aptitudes que
son importantes en el aprendizaje universitario y el
mundo laboral.
Cómo hacer los exámenes
de práctica
Es una buena idea hacer los exámenes de práctica
bajo condiciones tan similares como sea posible a las
que te enfrentarás el día del examen. Las siguientes
sugerencias te ayudarán:
y
Si vas a tomar el examen A C T (sin redacción), los
cuatro exámenes de opción múltiple requieren 2
horas y 55 minutos. Hazlos en orden, en una sola
sesión, con un descanso de 10 a 15 minutos entre
los exámenes 2 y 3.
y
Solamente necesitarás lápices N.º 2 blandos y
alados, y buenas gomas para borrar. Retira
todos los demás objetos de tu escritorio. No se te
permitirá usar papel para notas no aprobado, pero
puedes usar el cuadernillo del examen para tomar
notas.
y
Si planeas usar una calculadora permitida
en el examen de matemáticas, usa la misma
calculadora que utilizarás el día del examen.
y
Utiliza un reloj o cronómetro digital para tomar el
tiempo en cada uno de los exámenes de práctica.
Ajusta tu reloj cinco minutos antes del tiempo
de terminación de cada examen, para que te
acostumbres al anuncio verbal de que quedan
cinco minutos.
y
Date solo el tiempo permitido para cada examen.
y
Desprende y usa el documento de respuestas de
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y
Lee las instrucciones para el examen en la primera
página de cada examen de opción múltiple. Estas
son las mismas instrucciones que aparecerán en
tu cuadernillo del examen en el día del examen.
y
Enciende tu cronómetro y comienza con el
examen 1. Continúa hasta el examen 4, tomándote
un descanso de 10 a 15 minutos entre los
exámenes 2 y 3. Usa la tabla de tiempos de la
página page2 para calcular el tiempo de
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Calica tus exámenes de opción múltiple usando
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Si planeas tomar el examen A C T con redacción, lee
las instrucciones de la primera página del examen
de redacción de A C T de práctica (page54).
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aparecerán en tu cuadernillo del examen en el día
del examen. Activa tu cronómetro (programado
para 40 minutos) y luego lee las instrucciones de
la página page55. Después de que sepas lo
que las instrucciones te están pidiendo, planica
tu ensayo y luego escríbelo o imprímelo en hojas
con rayas. El día del examen, si haces el examen
en papel, tu documento de respuestas tendrá
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Calica tu ensayo usando la información de las
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y
Hay un examen de práctica accesible para
lectores de pantalla disponible en https://practice.
actdigitalservices.org/.
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This booklet contains tests in English, mathematics,
reading, and science. These tests measure skills and
abilities highly related to high school course work and
success in college. Calculators may be used on the
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Mark only one answer to each question. If you change
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Form 2176CPRE
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PASSAGE I
Bar Codes: A Linear History
[1]
In 1948, graduate students, Norman Woodland
and Bernard Silver, took on a problem that had troubled
retailers for years: how to keep track of store inventories.
Inspired by the dots and dashes of Morse code, however,
Woodland and Silver created a system of lines that could
encode data. Called a symbology, the pattern created by
the spacing and widths of the lines encodes information
by representing different characters.
1. A. NO CHANGE
B. students, Norman Woodland and Bernard Silver
C. students Norman Woodland and Bernard Silver
D. students Norman Woodland and Bernard Silver,
2. F. NO CHANGE
G. in other words,
H. consequently,
J. DELETE the underlined portion.
ENGLISH TEST
45 Minutes—75 Questions
DIRECTIONS: In the five passages that follow, certain
words and phrases are underlined and numbered. In
the right-hand column, you will find alternatives for the
underlined part. In most cases, you are to choose the
one that best expresses the idea, makes the statement
appropriate for standard written English, or is worded
most consistently with the style and tone of the passage
as a whole. If you think the original version is best,
choose “NO CHANGE.” In some cases, you will find in
the right-hand column a question about the underlined
part. You are to choose the best answer to the question.
You will also find questions about a section of the pas-
sage, or about the passage as a whole. These questions
do not refer to an underlined portion of the passage, but
rather are identified by a number or numbers in a box.
For each question, choose the alternative you consider
best and fill in the corresponding oval on your answer
document. Read each passage through once before you
begin to answer the questions that accompany it. For
many of the questions, you must read several sentences
beyond the question to determine the answer. Be sure
that you have read far enough ahead each time you
choose an alternative.
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ACT-2176CPRE
11
The following paragraphs may or may not be
in the most logical order. Each paragraph is num -
bered in brackets, and question 14 will ask you to
choose where Paragraph 3 should most logically
be placed.
2
1
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[2]
The first bar code was composed of four white
lines set at specific distances from each other on a black
background. The first line was always present. $
Depending on the presence or absence of the remaining
three lines, up to seven different arrangements were
susceptible and, therefore, seven different encodings.
Today, twenty-nine white lines making more than half
a billion encodings possible.
[3]
To create a bar code scanner, Woodland and
Silver adapted technology from an optical movie sound
system. Their prototype scanner used a 500-watt bulb, a
photomultiplier tube (a device that detects light), and an
oscilloscope (a device that translates electronic signals into
readable information). Although successful, the concoction
was both large and costly. For example, progress stalled
until the 1970s, when laser technology (both more compact
and less expensive) became available.
[4]
In today’s scanners, a laser sends light back and forth
across a bar code. While the black lines absorb the light,
the white lines reflect it back at a fixed mirror inside the
scanner. In this way, the scanner reads the symbology and
decodes the information.
3. A. NO CHANGE
B. distances so that each was separated, one from the
C. locations, each one set apart from the
D. lengths of distance from each
4. The writer is considering deleting the preceding sen-
tence. Should the sentence be kept or deleted?
F. Kept, because it begins the description that is
com-
pleted in the sentence that follows.
G . Kept, because it gives a clear image of what the
first bar code looked like.
H . Deleted, because it provides an extra detail that is
not relevant to the subject of the paragraph.
J. Deleted, because it contradicts a point made later
in the paragraph.
5. A. NO CHANGE
B. responsible
C. possible
D. capable
6. F. NO CHANGE
G . which make
H . to make
J. make
7. A. NO CHANGE
B. contraption
C. substance
D. stuff
8. F. NO CHANGE
G. As a result,
H. However,
J. Even so,
9. A . NO CHANGE
B . them
C . ones
D. one
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ACT-2176CPRE
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[5]
* Today,
being that there are one- and
two-dimensional bar codes using numeric
and alphanumeric symbologies. Bar codes
are used not only for a pack of gum or an airline
ticket, but also for research. In one study, for
instance, tiny bar codes were placed on bees tracking
their activities. Shaping the way we gather, track, and
share information, we have almost certainly exceeded
even Woodland and Silvers expectations.
1 4. For the sake of the logic and coherence of the essay,
Paragraph 3 should be placed:
F. where it is now.
G. before Paragraph 1.
H. after Paragraph 1.
J. after Paragraph 5.
10. Which of the following true statements, if added here,
would most effectively lead into the new subject of the
paragraph?
F. In the 1940s, Woodland and Silver were graduate
students at the Drexel Institute of Technology in
Philadelphia.
G . W
oodland and Silver were granted a patent for
their bar code on October 7, 1952.
H. Bar code equipment has been available for retail
use since 1970.
J. Bar codes themselves have advanced as well.
11. A. NO CHANGE
B . there are
C . where
D. DELETE the underlined portion.
12. F. NO CHANGE
G. had been placed on bees trying to track
H. placed on bees, which would track
J. were placed on bees to track
13. A. NO CHANGE
B . exceeding Woodland and Silver’s expectations
about bar codes has almost certainly been done.
C . bar codes have almost certainly exceeded even
Woodland and Silvers expectations.
D. it is almost certain that we have exceeded even
Woodland and Silvers expectations.
1 5. Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to
describe how a specific technological advancement
changed business practices. Would this essay accom-
plish that purpose?
A . Yes, because it offers an overview of current bar
code technology and indicates the variety of ways
in which bar codes are used by specific businesses.
B . Yes, because it explains how bar codes and scan-
ners made it easier for stores to keep track of their
inventories.
C . No, because it focuses primarily on the develop-
ment of bar codes and only briefly mentions how
businesses have implemented the use of bar codes.
D. No, because it focuses on why businesses needed
new technology but does not explain how bar
codes were able to serve that need.
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ACT-2176CPRE
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Questions 14 and 15 ask about the preceding passage as a whole.
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16. F. NO CHANGE
G. me, and then pointing
H. me and she pointed
J. me, she pointed
17. A. NO CHANGE
B. glowing, she said as she pointed up to the ceiling.
C. glowing,” she said in a hushed, whispering voice.
D. glowing.”
18. F. NO CHANGE
G. Although
H. Since
J. DELETE the underlined portion.
19. A. NO CHANGE
B. with
C. by
D. in
20. F. NO CHANGE
G. end up pretty hard to see.
H. have not a lot of light.
J. be utterly dark.
21. At this point, the writer wants to emphasize the idea
that the narrator found the womans comment peculiar.
Which of the following best accomplishes that goal?
A. I figured she had been to the caves before.
B. Surprised, I hesitantly turned toward her.
C. She had a notepad in her hand.
D. I happened to agree.
22. F. NO CHANGE
G. had been
H. it was
J. DELETE the underlined portion.
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ACT-2176CPRE
11
PASSAGE II
Glowing on an Adventure
As I pulled my camera out of my backpack, I felt a
tap on my arm.
No photographs,whispered the woman next to
me, pointing up to the cave ceiling.The flash will
make them stop glowing,she said, whispering.
She was referring to the thousands of glowworms
that clung to the limestone ceiling and, with their radiant
bodies, flooded the cave in aquamarine light. While
I was traveling on canoe on a group tour through
the renowned Glowworm Grotto of New Zealands
Waitomo Caves. Were it not for the twinkling
light of these Arachnocampa luminosa, a species
unique to New Zealand and abundant in these caves,
this meandering subterranean passageway would
feel as though it were downright ensconced in shadows.
I sheepishly tucked the camera away and focused
again on the glowworms. Collectively, they resembled the
cosmos, a sea of stars in a clear night sky. Beautiful—yet
what made them glow?
Bioluminescence, the woman said,
peculiarly sensing my curiosity. 5 A badge
was pinned to her shirt indicated she was a
biochemist, here, I guessed, to research the organism.
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She explained that to attract prey, glowworms (not
really worms at all, but the larval stage of a fungus
gnat) emit light through their translucent skin; via a
cellular chemical reaction. The cells produce luciferin,
a chemical pigment that reacts with oxygen to produce
light that shines through the organism’s tail-end intestine.
From its mouth, she showed me,
all glowworms dangle shimmering silken
threads glossed in beads of mucus. Cave-dwelling
insects are trapped in these threads, then reeled in
like fish on a line, and finally lured by the light.
The light responds to environmental factors. The
sound of splashing water, however, might signal
that prey is nearby, causing them to
brighten. <
2 3. A. NO CHANGE
B . skin, and via
C . skin. Via
D. skin via
2 4. F. NO CHANGE
G . all of the glowworms are dangling
H . each of the glowworms dangle
J. each glowworm dangles
2 5. A. NO CHANGE
B . lured by the light, then trapped in these threads,
and finally reeled in like fish on a line.
C . reeled in like fish on a line, then trapped in these
threads, and finally lured by the light.
D. trapped in these threads, then
lured by the light,
and finally reeled in like fish on a line.
26. F. NO CHANGE
G . on the other hand,
H . for example,
J. above all,
27. A. NO CHANGE
B . the light
C . these
D. DELETE the underlined portion.
28. Which of the following choices, if added here, would
best conclude the paragraph and refer back to the con-
versation at the beginning of the essay?
F. Insects are likely attracted to the light because the
sky-like appearance of the glowworms fools the
insects into believing they are outdoors.
G. She told me that the cave is usually quiet, with
only occasional noises, such as tour boats passing
through the water.
H. A camera flash, she reminded me, may also spell
danger, and the glowwormslight is doused.
J. The light is also brighter in a hungry larva than in
those that have just eaten.
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ACT-2176CPRE
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Our trip neared its end. I spotted
a dragonfly in the cave. I knew its
fate, it would be ensnared, just as I had
been by the brilliance of these luminescent
glowworms.
PASSAGE III
A Rose by the Name Antique
With shears in hand, I clip a thin branch
from the rosebush in my backyard garden. I place this
clipping into the basket next to me and crouch under
this again. I snip a few more branches and then rise
to head to the greenhouse. There, I will deposit these
clippings in rich soil; roots will take hold, buds will sprout,
and a new plant will find a home in my garden.
My roses are not your average hybrid-tea roses (those
long-stemmed, special occasion roses with well-formed
buds). Mine are antique roses, old, or heirloom varieties,
that have existed in gardens worldwide for centuries.
29. The writer is considering revising the underlined por-
tion to the following:
soaring toward the light.
Should the writer make this revision?
A. Yes, because the revised phrase more specifically
describes the dragonflys actions to help support
the narrator’s claim that she knew what its fate
would be.
B. Yes, because the revised phrase adds informati
on
that explains why the light of the glowworms was
suddenly dim.
C. No, because the original phrase more clearly
establishes that the trip is ending and that the nar-
rator sees the dragonfly as they exit the cave.
D. No, because the original phrase builds on the sus-
pense established in the narrative regarding the
fate of the dragonfly.
30. F. NO CHANGE
G. fate; and
H. fate:
J. fate
31. A. NO CHANGE
B. basket next, to me
C. basket, next to me
D. basket next to me,
32. F. NO CHANGE
G. the rosebush
H. one
J. it
33. Which choice most closely maintains the sentence pat-
tern the writer establishes after the semicolon?
A. NO CHANGE
B. I will see new buds that have been sprouting,
C. followed by the buds, which have sprouted,
D. then come the sprouting buds after that,
34. F. NO CHANGE
G. roses, old or heirloom, varieties,
H. roses old, or heirloom varieties
J. roses, old or heirloom varieties
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ACT-2176CPRE
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Compared to vibrant hybrid-tea colors, antique rose colors
tend to be silenced. Their stems are also shorter, and their
buds are a bit droopier. Their fragrance, however, is
unmatched. And unlike the hybrid-tea whose long stems
make into a rosebush that is rather scraggly looking,
antique rosebushes can be grown in a variety of colors,
handsomely landscaping gardens.
The plant thrives best when it is exposed to six hours
of direct sunlight daily. The plant can withstand extreme
temperatures and survive nearly anywhere. Its also easier
to grow antiques. Cultivating hybrid-teas having involved
a process of grafting two species of rose together, but the
grafted area remains weak and susceptible to viruses.
Antiques, on the other hand, are less prone to disease
because they are grown simply by placing cuttings from
a parent plant into nutrient-rich soil. They require far less
pruning, fertilizing, and nurturing than their hybrid-tea
3 5. A. NO CHANGE
B . vibrant hybrid-tea, colors,
C . vibrant, hybrid-tea colors
D. vibrant hybrid-tea colors
3 6. F. NO CHANGE
G . reduced.
H . muted.
J. lower.
3 7. A. NO CHANGE
B . about
C . like
D. for
3 8. The writer wants to add a detail here that best com-
pletes the contrast to hybrid-tea roses in the first part
of the sentence. Which choice best accomplishes that
goal?
F. NO CHANGE
G . are lush and shapely,
H . can grow quite large,
J. tend to be less thorny,
39. Which choice best introduces the main focus of the
paragraph?
A . NO CHANGE
B . The varieties of antique roses are numerous, the
most popular of which are the silken peach
Mutabilis and the crimson Louis Phillippe.
C . Aside from the rose’s beauty, what gardeners like
me most appreciate is that antiques are incredibly
durable and low maintenance.
D. While I am fond of bush varieties, I am also drawn
to climbing varieties that can be placed against
walls, fences, or trellises.
4 0. F. NO CHANGE
G. Theyre
H. Their
J. Its
4 1. A. NO CHANGE
B . which involves
C. involves
D. involving
4 2. F. NO CHANGE
G. Antiques, requiring
H. Antiques require
J. Requiring
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ACT-2176CPRE
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43. The writer wants to add a detail here that emphasizes
the antique rose’s ability to survive without human
care. Which choice best accomplishes that goal?
A. NO CHANGE
B. blooming year after year even at abandoned sites.
C. making them more popular among gardeners.
D. often blooming between midspring and fall.
44. Which sequence of sentences makes this paragraph
most logical?
F. NO CHANGE
G. 2, 1, 3
H. 3, 1, 2
J. 1,
3, 2
45. Suppose the writer’s primary purpose had been to
describe the process of planting a particular flower.
Would this essay accomplish that purpose?
A. Yes, because the essay discusses the steps involved
in growing and maintaining antique rosebushes.
B. Yes, because the writer explains the specific condi-
tions needed to plant antique roses and how long it
takes for new buds to sprout.
C. No, because the essay is more focused on compar-
ing the qualities and cultivation of antique and
hybrid-tea roses.
D. No, because while the writer mentions growing
antique roses in his garden, the essay is more
focused on the history of antiques in gardens
worldwide.
46. F. NO CHANGE
G. this work of art reached
H. the object stood
J. DELETE the underlined portion.
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ACT-2176CPRE
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Question 45 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
counterparts, antiques can reportedly survive without any
care from human hands, a fact that surprises many.
[1] I dig small holes in a pot of soil, place each
clipping a half inch deep, and pack down the soil around
them. [2] Back in my greenhouse, I strip the clippings
of all leaves and branches. [3] Then I wait: the roots will
take hold and, eventually, buds will sprout. L
PASSAGE IV
Jeremy Frey, Weaving Heritage Into Modern Art
[1]
The winning piece was a basket, it was eighteen
inches tall with a curved, vaselike silhouette. [A] It
was made of ash wood finely woven into bold stripes of
black and white that ran from its crown to its base. [B]
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4 7. A. NO CHANGE
B . Market the largest Indian art festivalin the
nation—
C. Market, the largest Indian art festival, in the nation
D. Market, the largest Indian art festival in the nation
4 8. F. NO CHANGE
G. looked on as the
H. as his
J. his
4 9. A. NO CHANGE
B . but, unlike most, contemporary basketmakers
C. but unlike, most contemporary basketmakers,
D. but, unlike most contemporary basketmakers
5 0. F. NO CHANGE
G. Going on to
create
H. Frey creates
J. Creating
5 1. If the writer were to delete the underlined portion, the
essay would primarily lose:
A. an indication that Frey honors Passamaquoddy cul-
tural heritage by creating baskets that look nearly
identical to traditional pieces.
B . a mention of a physical characteristic of the earli-
est baskets used by Passamaquoddy fishermen.
C . a detail that connects Frey’s basketry work to
long-standing Passamaquoddy traditions.
D. a point revealing that Freys baskets are used by
Passamaquoddy fishermen today.
5 2. Which choice provides the clearest and most specific
information about which parts of Frey’s baskets are
being referred to in the sentence and about Frey’s
manner of weaving those parts?
F. NO CHANGE
G. a remarkable level of detail on certain sections, the
H. intricately woven interiors and bottoms,
J. characteristic interiors and bottoms,
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ACT-2176CPRE
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In the ninety-year history of the Santa Fe Indian
Marketthe largest Indian art festival in the nation—the
2011 event marked the first time a basket won best of
show. The creator of the piece, thirty-three-year-old
Passamaquoddy Indian Jeremy Frey from Princeton,
Maine, the basket sold at auction for $16,000.
[2]
[C] Frey describes his baskets as
“cutting-edge traditional. [D] He primarily
weaves a classic material, wood from the brown
ash tree, but, unlike most contemporary basketmakers,
he harvests, cuts, pounds, dries, and dyes the wood
himself. Then creating highly elaborate versions
of the sturdy utility baskets that have been used
by generations of Passamaquoddy fishermen from
Maine. He honors tradition, but he highlights
artistic design. For example, his baskets feature
complex weaving on areas that are often hidden
and therefore typically not embellished. Many
traditional baskets have basic, woven lids.
48
49
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Freys porcupine quill lids are often decorated
with art inlaid on birch bark; as far as lids go,
I wouldn’t say thats basic. And while braids of
grass are customarily woven into ash baskets
to make them better, Frey incorporates braided
cedar bark to create striking new textures.
[3]
Now that he’s a nationally recognized artist of who
has rejuvenated the art of basketry, Frey feels his role
is to inspire. He’s on the board of the Maine Indian
Basketmakers Alliance, a group that works to help
preserve it by reaching out to young members of Native
communities in the state. His other goal is to continue to
stand out. The woven grass bracelets he saw on a recent
trip to Hawaii have influenced how he shapes the bases
of some of his newer baskets, as he finds yet another way
to make traditional Passamaquoddy weaving something
spectacularly his own.
53. Which placement of the underlined portion makes
clear that the art that decorates the lid, not the lid
itself, is made of porcupine quill?
A. Where it is now
B. After the wor
d are
C . After the word often
D. After the word with
5 4. F. NO CHANGE
G . bark, which is not exactly formulating a lid
through a conventional ideology.
H. bark; this is just part of his really artistic way.
J. bark.
5 5. A. NO CHANGE
B . has been
C . is seen
D. is
5 6. Which choice provides the clearest and most specific
reason that grass is woven into ash baskets?
F. NO CHANGE
G. for the sake of the objects,
H. for a useful purpose,
J. to strengthen them,
57. A. NO CHANGE
B . being whom
C . whom
D. who
58. F. NO CHANGE
G . this art
H . that
J. DELETE the underlined portion.
59. A. NO CHANGE
B . distinguish himself from other weavers so as a
weaver he is set apart from them.
C . remain to be someone who gets noticed.
D. keep on being fully distinct.
60. The writer is considering adding the following sen-
tence to the essay:
The black stripes were woven flat, sharply set-
ting off the white stripes, which were woven
to form raised columns of perfectly even
points that seemed to cascade down the piece.
If the writer were to add this sentence, it would most
logically be placed at:
F. Point A in Paragraph 1.
G . Point B in Paragraph 1.
H . Point C in Paragraph 2.
J. Point D in Paragraph 2.
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ACT-2176CPRE
11
Question 60 asks about the preceding passage
as a whole.
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
54
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PASSAGE V
The Flow of Time
Nine hundred years ago, Emperor Zhezong of China,
ordered the design and construction of a clock
built to keep time more accurately than other clocks.
This would be no simple timepiece and because
Chinese dynasties continued to astrology, they relied
on complicated clocks that not only kept time but also
helped track stars, planets, the sun, and the moon. An
eminent scientist and bureaucrat named Su Song lead
Zhezongs ambitious project.
Using his expertise in calendrical science,
Su Song created a spectacular timepiece housed within
an ornate forty-foot-tall tower. At the towers top sat an
armillary sphere, or a nest of metal rings representing
celestial reference points such as the horizon and
the suns path—that rotated in sync with the
earth, enabling precise astronomical observations.
Inside the tower, a sphere depicting the sky
revolved to display the stars that were overhead.
61. A. NO CHANGE
B. ago, Emperor Zhezong, of China
C. ago, Emperor Zhezong of China
D. ago Emperor Zhezong of China,
62. F. NO CHANGE
G.
to keep time more accurately than clocks that had
previously come before it.
H. more accurate at keeping time correctly than any
other clock of the time.
J. more accurate than any other.
63. A. NO CHANGE
B. timepiece. Because
C. timepiece, because
D. timepiece because
64. F. NO CHANGE
G. adhered
H. linked
J. fixed
65. A. NO CHANGE
B. imminent scientist and bureaucrat named Su Song
lead
C. imminent scientist and bureaucrat named Su Song
led
D. eminent scientist and bureaucrat named Su Song
led
66. Given that all the choices are accurate, which one best
indicates that Su Song relied on engineering achieve-
ments from earlier times?
F. NO CHANGE
G. Building on centuries of Chinese clock-making
knowledge,
H. While authoring his treatise on astronomical
clockwork,
J. After first crafting a working small-scale wooden
model,
67. A. NO CHANGE
B. secured between
C. encased around
D. nestled among
68. F. NO CHANGE
G. sphere—
H. sphere:
J. sphere,
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ACT-2176CPRE
11
61
62
63
64
65
66
67
68
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Besides, below the star sphere, the tower’s open
sides exposed a detailed model of a five-story pagoda.
Automated figurines would appear in the pagodas
doorways and ring bells to announce hours, sunsets,
seasons, and other chronological events.
The clocks inner workings were equally remarkable.
Hidden in the tower, a waterwheel eleven feet in diameter
powered the entire clock. Therefore, water would pour at
a constant rate into one of the wheel’s thirty-six buckets.
When the bucket was full, the waters weight pulled it
down, rotating the waterwheel. Then a stop mechanism
halted the wheel and positioned the next bucket for filling.
Chinese clockmakers had long used waterwheels, but
Su Songs stop mechanism, which regulated the inertia
of the waterwheel, represented significant innovation.
Unfortunately, after Su Songs clock ran
for thirty years, invaders stole it. Later the clock
vanished altogether. It would be a few hundred years
until with the refinement of mechanical clocks in Europe
other clocks approached the complexity of Su Songs
masterpiece.
6 9. A. NO CHANGE
B . Sooner or later,
C . Lastly,
D. Thus,
7 0. Which of the following alternatives to the underlined
portion would NOT be acceptable?
F. bells, which served to announce
G . bells, they announced
H . bells that announced
J. bells, announcing
7 1. A. NO CHANGE
B . reveals themselves as being
C . was shown to be
D. has proved
7 2. F. NO CHANGE
G . In other words, water
H . For example, water
J. Water
7 3. A. NO
CHANGE
B . nevertheless,
C . regardless,
D. DELETE the underlined portion.
7 4. F. NO CHANGE
G. until—with the refinement of mechanical clocks in
Europe—
H. until with the refinement (of mechanical clocks in
Europe)
J. until, with the refinement, of mechanical clocks in
Europe
7 5. A. NO CHANGE
B . eventually became able to draw anywhere near to
the complexity
C. grew to attain such a high degree as that
D. could even fathom coming within reach
ACT-2176CPRE
11
69
70
71
72
73
74
75
END OF TEST 1
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
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1 . The numbers 1 through 15 were each written on
individual pieces of paper, 1 number per piece. Then
the 15 pieces of paper were put in a jar. One piece of
paper will be drawn from the jar at random. What is
the probability of drawing a piece of paper with a
number less than 9 written on it?
A.
B.
C .
D.
E.
2 . Which of the following expressions is equivalent to
4x
3
12x
3
+ 9x
2
?
F. 0 0x
8
G . 07x
8
H . 08x
3
+ 9x
2
J. 16x
3
+ 9x
2
K. 16x
6
+ 9x
2
3 . When x = 2, 10+ 3
_
12÷ (3x)
+
= 0?
A. 012
B . 016
C. 026
D. 034
E . 104
4 .
6 4
3 8
= ?
F. 7
G. 3
H. 3
J. 7
K. 21
1
__
9
1
___
15
6
___
15
7
___
15
8
___
15
5 . The expression (4c 3d)(3c + d) is equivalent to:
A. 12c
2
13cd 3d
2
B . 12c
2
13cd + 3d
2
C . 12c
2
05cd 3d
2
D. 12c
2
05cd + 3d
2
E . 12c
2
03d
2
6 . Of the 180 students in a college course, of the
students earned an A for the course, of the students
earned a B for the course, and the rest of the
students earned a C for the course. How many of the
students earned a C for the course?
F. 075
G. 090
H. 105
J. 120
K. 135
7. The number of fish, f, in Skipper’s Pond at the
beginning of each year can be modeled by the equation
f (x) = 3(2
x
), where x represents the number of years
after the beginning of the year 2000. For example,
x = 0 represents the beginning of the year 2000, x = 1
represents the beginning of the year 2001, and so forth.
According to the model, how many fish were in
Skippers Pond at the beginning of the year 2006?
A. 000,96
B. 00,192
C. 00,384
D. 01,458
E. 46,656
1
__
4
1
__
3
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
MATHEMATICS TEST
60 Minutes—60 Questions
ACT-2176CPRE
22
DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem, choose the correct
answer, and then fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document.
Do not linger over problems that take too much time.
Solve as many as you can; then return to the others in
the time you have left for this test.
You are permitted to use a calculator on this test. You
may use your calculator for any problems you choose,
but some of the problems may best be done without
using a calculator.
Note: Unless otherwise stated, all of the following should
be assumed.
1. Illustrative figures are NOT necessarily drawn to scale.
2. Geometric figures lie in a plane.
3. The word line indicates a straight line.
4. The word average indicates arithmetic mean.
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 27 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
8 . Manish drove from Chicago to Baton Rouge. At
8:00 a.m., he was 510 km from Baton Rouge. At
1:00 p.m., he was 105 km from Baton Rouge. Which
of the following values is closest to Manishs average
speed, in kilometers per hour, from 8:00 a.m. to
1:00p.m.?
F. 058
G. 068
H. 081
J. 094
K. 102
9 . In the figure shown below, E and G lie onAC
___
, D andF
lie on AB
___
, DE
___
and FG
___
are parallel to BC
___
, and the
given lengths are infeet. What is the length ofAC
___
, in
feet?
A . 13
B . 26
C . 29
D. 42
E . 48
1 0. Katerina runs 15 miles in 2 hours. What is the
average number of minutes it takes her to run 1mile?
F. 06
G . 10
H . 12
J. 16
K . 17
1 1. A bag contains 8 red marbles, 9 yellow marbles, and
7 green marbles. How many additional red marbles
must be added to the 24 marbles already in the bag so
that the probability of randomly drawing a red marble
is ?
A . 11
B . 16
C . 20
D. 24
E . 32
1
__
2
1
__
2
2
__
3
1
__
2
D
F
7
6
8
16
B
C
G
E
A
3
__
5
1 2. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, the point (2,1) is
the midpoint of CD
___
. Point C has coordinates (6,8).
What are the coordinates of pointD ?
F.
1
2,
2
G . (2, 6)
H .
1
4,
2
J. (10, 10)
K . (10, 15)
13. At his job, the first 40hours of each week that Thomas
works is regular time, and any additional time that he
works is overtime. Thomas gets paid $15 per hour
during regular time. During overtime Thomas gets paid
1.5times as much as he gets paid during regular time.
Thomas works 46 hours in 1 week and gets $117 in
deductions taken out of his pay for this week. After the
deductions are taken out, how much of Thomas’s pay
for this week remains?
A. $492
B. $573
C. $609
D. $618
E. $735
14. At Sweet Stuff Fresh Produce the price of a bag of
grapes depends on the total number of bags purchased
at 1 time, as shown in the table below. In 2 trips to
Sweet Stuff this week, Janelle purchased 3 bags of
grapes on Monday and 4 bags of grapes on Wednesday.
How much money would Janelle have saved if she had
instead purchased 7 bags of grapes in 1 trip on
Monday?
F. $0.20
G . $1.00
H . $1.40
J. $2.00
K . $2.50
15. What is 3% of 4.14
×
10
4
?
A . 001,242
B . 001,380
C . 012,420
D. 013,800
E . 124,200
Number of bags Price per bag
13 $3.00
46
$2.80
79
$2.60
10or more $2.50
9
__
2
7
__
2
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ACT-2176CPRE
22
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16. What value of x satisfies the equation
3(4x 5)= 2(1 5x)?
F.
G.
H. 1
J.
K.
17. In right triangle nABC shown below, the given lengths
are in millimeters. What is sin,A ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
18.
12
= ?
F.
G.
H.
J.
K.
19. Loto begins at his back door and walks 8 yards east,
6 yards north, 12 yards east, and 5 yards north to the
barn door. About how many yards less would he walk
if he could walk directly from the back door to the
barn door?
A. 08
B. 19
C. 23
D. 26
E. 31
13
_ __
2
4
å
2
_____
9
4
å
2
_____
7
7
å
2
_____
8
7
__
9
9
__
7
27
_ __
64
2
__
3
9
_ __
16
9
_ __
32
9
_ __
32
16
_ __
9
9
7
A
CB
3
_ __
17
17
_ __
22
32
_ __
9
17
_ __
2
20. For a given set of data, the standard score, z,
corresponding to the raw score, x, is given by z = ,
where μ is the mean of the set and σ is the standard
deviation. If, for a set of scores, μ=78 and σ=6,
which of the following is the raw score, x,
corresponding to z = 2?
F. 90
G. 84
H. 80
J. 76
K. 66
21. In the figure below, A, B, C, and D lie on the circle
centered atO.
Which of the following does NOT appear in the figure?
A. Acute triangle
B. Equilateral triangle
C. Isosceles triangle
D. Right triangle
E. Scalene triangle
22. What is the slope of a line, in the standard (x,y)
coordinate plane, that is parallel to x + 5y = 9?
F. 5
G.
H.
J.
K. 9
23. Given y = and x > 1, which of the following is a
possible value of y ?
A. 1.9
B. 0.9
C. 0.0
D. 0.9
E. 1.9
A
60°
O
B
C
D
1
__
5
1
__
5
9
__
5
x
_____
x 1
x −μ
_____
σ
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ACT-2176CPRE
22
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2 4. The set of all positive integers that are divisible by
both 15 and 35 is infinite. What is the least positive
integer in this set?
F. 005
G. 050
H. 105
J. 210
K. 525
2 5. In nABC shown below, the measure of A is5, and
AB
___
AC
___
. What is the measure ofC ?
A. 3
B . 42°
C. 5
D. 6
E . 62°
2 6. About 1.48
×
10
8
square kilometers of Earths surface
is land; the rest, about 3.63
×
10
8
square kilometers, is
water. If a returning space capsule lands at a random
point on Earth’s surface, which of the following is the
best estimate of the probability that the space capsule
will land in water?
F. 80%
G . 71%
H . 65%
J. 41%
K . 29%
2 7. On the first 7 statistics tests of the semester, Jamal
scored 61, 76, 79, 80, 80, 84, and 91. The mean,
median, and mode of his scores were 79, 80, and 80,
respectively. On the 8th statistics test, Jamal scored 90.
How do the mean, median, and mode of all 8 of his
scores compare to the mean, median, and mode of his
first 7 scores?
Mean Median Mode
A . equal greater greater
B . greater greater greater
C . greater greater equal
D. greater equal greater
E . greater equal equal
58°
?
B
A
C
2 8. The solid rectangular prism shown below was built by
alternating congruent black cubes and white cubes
such that 2 cubes of the same color have at most
1 edge touching. What is the total number of white
cubes that were used to build the prism?
F. 045
G. 102
H. 105
J. 140
K. 210
2 9. One side of squareABCD has a length of 12 meters. A
certain rectangle whose area is equal to the area of
A BCD has a width of 8 meters. What is the length, in
meters, of the rectangle?
A . 12
B . 16
C . 18
D. 20
E . 24
30. The average of a list of 4 numbers is 92.0. A new list
of 4 numbers has the same first 3 numbers as the
original list, but the fourth number in the original list
is 40, and the fourth number in the new list is 48. What
is the average of this new list of numbers?
F. 81.0
G . 92.0
H . 94.0
J. 94.4
K . 96.6
31. The vector i represents 1 mile per hour east, and the
vector j represents 1 mile per hour north. Maria is
jogging south at 12 miles per hour. One of the
following vectors represents Marias velocity, in miles
per hour. Which one?
A. 12i
B. 12j
C. 012i
D. 012j
E. 012i + 12j
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ACT-2176CPRE
22
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Many humans carry the geneYq77. The Yqtest determines,
with 100% accuracy, whether a human carries Yq77. If a
Yqtest result is positive, the human carries the Yq77 gene.
If a Yq test result is negative, the human does NOT carry
Yq77. Sam designed a less expensive test for Yq77 called
the Sam77 test. It produces some incorrect results. To
determine the accuracy of the Sam77 test, both tests were
administered to 1,000 volunteers. The results from this
administration are summarized in the table below.
35. It cost $2,500 to administer each Yq test and $50 to
administer each Sam77test. What was the total cost to
administer both tests to all the volunteers?
A . $1,537,500
B . $1,556,750
C . $1,568,250
D. $2,500,000
E . $2,550,000
36. What percent of the volunteers actually carry Yq77?
F. 57.5%
G . 60.0%
H . 60.5%
J. 61.5%
K . 62.5%
3 7. For how many volunteers did the Sam77 test give an
incorrect result?
A. 010
B . 025
C. 035
D. 385
E . 400
3 8. One of the volunteers whose Sam77 test result was
positive will be chosen at random. To the nearest
0.001, what is the probability the chosen volunteer
does NOT possess Yq77?
F. 0.017
G. 0.026
H. 0.035
J. 0.041
K. 0.063
Positive
Yqtest
Negative
Yqtest
Positive Sam77test 590 010
Negative Sam77test 025 375
GO ON TO THE NEXT PAGE.
ACT-2176CPRE
22
3 2. Four identical glasses are shown below. One glass is
empty, and the other 3 glasses are full, full, and
full of water, respectively. If the water were
redistributed equally among the 4 glasses, what
fractional part of each glass would be filled?
F.
G .
H.
J.
K.
3 3. Aurelio is purchasing carpet tiles to cover an area of
his living room floor that is 8 feet wide by 10 feet
long. Each carpet tile is a square 20
inches wide by
20 inches long. What is the minimum number of carpet
tiles that Aurelio must purchase to cover this area of
his living room floor?
A . 05
B. 11
C . 21
D. 30
E. 84
34. In the standard (x,y) coordinate plane, a circle with its
center at (8,5) and a radius of 9 coordinate units has
which of the following equations?
F. (x 8)
2
+ ( y 5)
2
= 81
G . (x 8)
2
+ ( y 5)
2
= 09
H . (x+ 8)
2
+ ( y+ 5)
2
= 81
J. (x+ 8)
2
+ ( y+ 5)
2
= 09
K . (x+ 5)
2
+ ( y+ 8)
2
= 81
2
___
11
8
___
11
3
___
22
31
___
60
31
___
80
1
__
3
4
__
5
1
__
2
1
__
4
Use the following information to answer
questions 35–38.
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3 9. Given matrices X =
3
10
4
and Y =
34
, which of the
following matrices is XY ?
A.
3
4
4
B .
3
3
4
C .
3
2
4
D.
3
2
4
E .
3
3
4
4 0. Regardless of how the graph is oriented in the standard
(x,y) coordinate plane, NO graph in one of the
following categories has a vertical line of symmetry.
Which one?
F. Line
G. Square
H. Pentagon
J. Parallelogram
K. Scalene triangle
4 1. The equation 24x
2
+ 2x = 15 has 2 solutions. What is
the greater of the 2 solutions?
A .
B .
C .
D.
E .
4 2. Which of the following expressions is equal to
(sin,60°)(cos,30°)+ (cos,60°)(sin,30°)?
F. cos(6 3)
G . cos(6+ 30°)
H . sin(6 30°)
J. sin(6+ 3)
K . sin
12
4 3. What is the area, in square units, of a circle that has a
circumference 12π units long?
A. 006π
B. 012π
C . 024π
D. 036π
E. 144π
2
1
3
__
4
4
__
3
5
__
6
7
__
6
11
___
15
60° + 30°
________
2
4 4. A barrel contains 25 liters of a solvent mixture that is
40% solvent and 60% water. Lee will add pure solvent
to the barrel, without removing any of the mixture
currently in the barrel, so that the new mixture will
contain 50% solvent and 50% water. How many liters
of pure solvent should Lee add to create this new
mixture?
F. 02.5
G. 05
H. 10
J. 12.5
K. 15
4 5. For all x ≠±y , +=?
A .
B .
C .
D. x
2
+ y
2
E .
46. Mary, James, and Carlos sold -page advertisements
for the school yearbook. Mary sold twice as many as
Carlos did, and James sold 3 times as many as Mary
did. What fraction of these advertisements did Carlos
sell?
F.
G .
H .
J.
K .
47. In a window display at a flower shop, there are 3 spots
for 1 plant each. To fill these 3 spots, Emily has
6 plants to select from, each of a different type.
Selecting from the 6 plants, Emily can make how many
possible display arrangements with 1 plant in each
spot?
(Note: The positions of the unselected plants do not
matter.)
A . 003
B . 006
C . 015
D. 120
E . 216
x + y
_____
2x
x
2
+ y
2
______
x
2
y
2
1
__
4
1
__
9
1
__
7
1
__
6
1
__
5
1
__
3
y
_____
x y
x
_____
x + y
1
_____
x y
x + y
_____
x y
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ACT-2176CPRE
22
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5 1. Twelve jurors are needed for an upcoming trial. The
diagram below illustrates a part of the process of jury
selection. The 12 jurors will be selected from a jury
pool of about 60 people. The court records show a
trend that only 40% of the people who are summoned
for jury duty actually appear and that of the people
who appear, are excused. If this same trend
continues, how many people should be summoned to
have as close as possible to 60people in the jury pool?
A. 045
B. 090
C. 150
D. 225
E. 800
52. What is the 275th digit after the decimal point in the
repeating decimal 0.6295
_____
?
F. 0
G . 2
H . 5
J. 6
K . 9
53. Given that f (x) = x
2
4 and g(x) = x + 3, what are all
the values ofx for which f
_
g(x)
+
= 0?
A . 5 and 1
B . 3, 2, and 2
C . 1 and 1
D. 01 and 5
E .
å
5 and
å
5
5 4. Given that p is a positive number, n is a negative
number, and
p
>
n
, which of the following
expressions has the greatest value?
F.
⎪⎪
G .
⎪⎪
H .
⎪⎪
J.
⎪⎪
K .
⎪⎪
Summoned
Did not appea
r
Appeared
Excused Jury pool
1
__
3
p n
_____
p
p n
_____
n
p + n
_____
p n
p + n
_____
p
p + n
_____
n
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ACT-2176CPRE
22
The quadratic function f and nMPQ are graphed in the
standard (x,y) coordinate plane below. Points M(2a, 5b),
N(4a, 9b), and P(6a, 5b) are on f. Point Q(4a, 0) is NOT
on f.
4 8. In terms of a and b, what is the area, in square
coordinate units, of nMPQ ?
F. 08ab
G. 10ab
H. 12ab
J. 15ab
K. 20ab
4 9. Point M will remain fixed, and point Q will move to
the right along the x-axis. As Q continues to move to
the right, which of the following statements describes
what will happen to the slope of MQ
____
?
A . It will decrease and eventually be negative.
B . It will decrease but never be negative.
C . It will stay the same.
D. It will increase but never be positive.
E . It will increase and eventually be positive.
5 0. One of the following values is equal to f(5a). Which
one?
F. 3a
G. 5a
H. 5b
J. 8a
K. 8b
y
x2a 4a 6a 8a
O
8
b
6
b
4
b
2
b
N
M
P
Q
f
Use the following information to answer
questions 48–50.
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5 5. If i =
√••
1 , then = ?
A. 3
B . 1
C. 0
D. 01
E. 03
5 6. In one of the following graphs in the standard (x,y)
coordinate plane, the solution set to the system of
inequalities below is shown shaded. Which one?
x + 2y 6
5
3x
2
> 12 3y
2
5 7. Let a, b, c, and d be real numbers. Given that ac = 1,
is undefined, and abc = d, which of the following
must be true?
A. a= 0 or c= 0
B . a= 1 and c= 1
C. a=−c
D. b= 0
E . b+ c= 0
x
y
O
K.
x
y
O
J.
x
y
O
H
.
x
y
O
G
.
x
O
y
F
.
1
__
2
i + i
2
+ i
3
_________
i
3
+ i
4
+ i
5
b + c
_____
d
5 8. A cosine function is shown in the standard (x,y)
coordinate plane below.
One of the following equations represents this
function. Which one?
F. y= 2cos
12
G . y= 2cos(3x)
H . y= 3cos
12
J. y= 3cos
12
K . y= 3cos(2x)
59. The figure below shows a flying kite. At a certain
moment, the kite string forms an angle of elevation of
7 from pointA on the ground. At the same moment,
the angle of elevation of the kite at pointB, 240 ft from
A on level ground, is 4. What is the length, in feet, of
the string?
A . 060
å
3
B . 080
å
6
C . 144
D. 180
E . 240
60. If a publisher charges $15 for the first copy of a book
that is ordered and $12 for each additional copy, which
of the following expressions represents the cost of
y books?
F. 12y + 03
G . 12y + 15
H . 15y 03
J. 15y + 03
K . 15y + 12
π
__
2
y
x
O
1
x
__
3
x
__
3
x
__
2
45°75°
s
tring
kite
240
AB
ACT-2176CPRE
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END OF TEST 2
STOP! DO NOT TURN THE PAGE UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
DO NOT RETURN TO THE PREVIOUS TEST.
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Passage I
LITERARY NARRATIVE: PassageA is ad apted from the
memoir The Piano Shop on the Left Bank by Thad Carhart
2001by  T.E. Carhart). Passage B is adapted  from the article
“Me andMyViolin ”byArnoldSteinhardt  (©2014 by Listen: Life
with Classical Music).
Passage A by Thad Carhart
Even when Luc was busy and could not talk he
always made me welcome and allowed me to wander
around the inner sanctum of the back room on my own.
When things were quieter, he seemed glad of the com-
pany and would tell me about the pianos that had just
arrived. Our talks made real for me one of his funda-
mental beliefs, that each and every piano had com-
pletely individual characteristics, even if of the same
manufacturer and age.
Sometimes he knew all the details, had even met
the owners and talked about their instrument with them
and knew intimately how they had treated it. Other
times he knew nothing beyond what he could see, feel,
or hear. Most often pianos came to him from auctions
and charity sales, their history anonymous. But even
then, like an expert in artifacts, he could deduce a great
deal: whether a piano had been played much or little,
whether it had been in an environment with the proper
level of humidity (one of his cardinal rules), whether
there had been children in the household, even whether
it had recently been transported by ship. (The worst
thing you can possibly do to a piano,he told me more
than once.) At these moments he was part detective,
part archaeologist, part social critic.
His attitude about how people treated their pianos
seemed to mirror his philosophy of life. While regret-
ting the depredations worked by children on keyboards
and strings, he regarded them as tolerable because the
piano was at least used and, as he put it, au sein de la
famille (“at the heart of the family”). It was more than
just any piece of furniture, but it was that, too, and if
drinks were spilled and stains bit into shiny finishes, it
was the price one paid for initiating the young to a joy
that should stem from familiarity rather than reverence.
Those who preserved their piano as an altar upon
which the art of music was to be worshipped irritated
Luc, but he was deeply respectful of serious musicians
who used and depended upon their instrument for their
livelihood.
Passage B by Arnold Steinhardt
Marc Lifschey, one of the greatest oboists of his
era, told me that after retiring as a performer and
teacher, he sold his oboe. On the face of it, giving up an
instrument you no longer use seems perfectly reason-
able, but nevertheless I was taken aback. Marc was not
merely an excellent oboist; he was a great artist. Still,
Marc didn’t do it alone. He and his oboe did it together.
Even in retirement, wouldn’t Marc have some sort of
lasting relationship with his oboe that transcended per-
forming on it? Wouldn’t he want to keep it if for no
other reason than as a reminder of the magnificent
music the two of them had made together?
Joseph Roisman, the distinguished first violinist of
the Budapest String Quartet, seemed to be content to
give up his beloved Lorenzo Storioni when he agreed to
sell it to me after the Quartet retired. But when I finally
met with him, he had second thoughts. Steinhardt,” he
said to me plaintively, I’ll sell the violin to you some
day, but for now Im enjoying playing chamber music
with my friends every Friday night.And that is exactly
what he did until his death a year or two later.
Lifschey and Roisman dealt with retirement in dif-
ferent ways, but their stories made me wonder about not
only what I’ll do with my violin if and when I retire,
but also about the very nature of a musicians day-to-
day, year-to-year relationship with his instrument.
I began playing violin when I was six years old,
and now I’m seventy-six. It has been an integral part of
my life for the last seven decades. Does that make the
violin my very close friend? Well, yes. Sometimes. The
violin obviously can’t speak with words, but when I ask
something of it, the instrument can respond with an
astonishing range of substance and emotion. This is
friendship on a most exalted level.
There are other moments, however, when the
violin stubbornly refuses to do my biddingwhen it
only reluctantly plays in tune, or makes the sound I
want, or delivers the music’s essence for which I strive.
Then I have to cajole, bargain or adjust to its every
READING TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There  are  several  passages  in  this  test.
Each  passage is  accompanied  by  several questio ns.
After reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and ll  in  the corresponding oval  on  your
answer  document. You  may refer  to  the pas sages  as
often as necessary.
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whim. Some friend; more like an adversary, you might
say.
Or is the violin my partner? A woman once went
backstage to congratulate the great violinist Jascha
Heifetz after a concert. What a wonderful sound your
violin has, Mr. Heifetz!she exclaimed. Heifetz leaned
over his violin that lay in its open case, listened intently
for a moment, and said, Funny, I don’t hear a thing.
My violin also lies mute
in its case without me—but, on
the other hand, I stand mute on the concert stage with-
out it.
1 . In Passage A, the parenthetical information in line 19
and lines21–23 mainly serves to:
A . specify how Luc identified certain aspects of a
pianos history.
B . portray Luc as overly judgmental about piano
transportation.
C . describe the types of rules that visitors to Lucs
shop were required to follow.
D. indicate some of Luc’s firm beliefs about piano
care.
2 . Based on the assertion in Passage A that Luc’s atti-
tude about how people treated their pianos seemed to
mirror his philosophy of life (lines 25–26), which of
the following statements would most nearly describe
Lucs philosophy of life?
F. It’s better to live a full and imperfect life than not
participate because something might go wrong.
G. Life is a fragile gift that must be cherished and
kept safe at all times.
H . Living well is like playing the piano well; it
requires dedication and practice.
J. Its important not to take life’s opportunities for
granted because they may not come a second time.
3 . As it is used in line32, the phrase bit into most nearly
means:
A . pinched.
B . ingested.
C . marred.
D. severed.
4 . In the third paragraph of Passage B (lines 61–65), the
author most clearly shifts from:
F. making an argument against musicians selling
their instruments to using evidence from his life to
support that argument.
G. introducing musicians he admires to explaining
why he hopes people admire him as a musician.
H. examining his own emotions about his violin to
explaining why musicians must develop a partner-
ship with their instruments.
J. discussing the connection between other musicians
and their instruments to pondering his own con-
nection with his violin.
5 . In Passage B, the statement that Lifschey was not
merely an excellent oboist; he was a great artist
(lines4445) can best be described as:
A . a fact supported by details about Lifscheys career.
B . a fact confirmed by experts quoted in the passage.
C . an opinion that the author attributes to Lifschey’s
colleagues and s
tudents.
D. an opinion that the author asserts but does not
explain.
6 . In Passage B, it can most reasonably be inferred that
Heifetz’s response to the woman who congratulates
him is intended to point out that:
F. the woman hears Heifetzs violin differently than
Heifetz does.
G. the woman isn’t qualified to judge the quality of
Heifetzs violin.
H. Heifetz enjoyed the woman’s humorous comment.
J. Heifetzs violin doesn’t make sounds by itself.
7 . In Passage B, the author most directly indicates that
the violin is sometimes an adversary by stating that it:
A . lies mute in its case.
B . makes him adjust to its whims.
C . responds with a range of emotion.
D. can’t speak with words.
8 . Compared to Passage A, Passage B is more directly
focused on the:
F. damage a musician can do to an instrument.
G. characteristics of an instrument that give clues to
its history.
H . interdependence between musician and instrument.
J. benefits of making instruments available to young
children.
9. In contrast to the way the pianos are described in Pas-
sage A, the passage author’s violin in Passage B is
described as:
A . exhibiting unique characteristics.
B . having an active personality of its own.
C . sustaining damage from careless children.
D. being important to daily life.
1 0. Which of the following assertions about instruments is
most strongly supported by details provided in both
PassageA and PassageB?
F. Familiarity with your instrument is an important
part of the joy of playing music.
G . Instruments should be revered and never treated
like furniture.
H . Selling your instrument shows disrespect for the
music you have made together.
J. Maintaining proper humidity levels is essential to
preserving an instrument.
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Passage II
INFORMATIONAL: This  passage is  adapted  from  the article
“Notes from  a Weddi ng” by  Lauren  Wilco x Puchowski 2010
by Lauren Wilcox Puchowski).
It was never Kenney Holmess intention to become
a wedding singer. The grandson of West Indian immi-
grants, Holmes was raised in Gordon Heights, on Long
Island, in what he calls a small black community
founded by like-minded thinkers, families of immi-
grants and Southern blacks who, as Holmes says,
didnt come here to fool around and who handed
down to their children their own keen sense of
ambition.
“We grew up in that kind of atmosphere, he says,
of positive thinking, of getting educated, whether or
not you had a degree.
Like any American boy in the 1950s and ’60s, he
was fascinated with popular music: He listened to the
area’s one radio station, whichmostly played Sinatra”;
sometimes in the evenings, with a coat hanger stuck
into the top of his portable radio, he could pick up a
faint signal from WWRL, a rhythm and blues station in
New York City. When he was a teenager, his brother
brought home a guitar. I was 16, it was a Sunday
night, he says. I sat down and played ‘I Can’t Get No
Satisfaction. I was addicted.
While he was not a virtuoso, he was, he discov-
ered, good at making money at it. He learned three
songsSatisfaction by the Rolling Stones, “And I
Love Her by the Beatles, and Shotgun by Junior
Walker and the All Starsand formed a band. We
went out and sold it, he says. We could play those
three songs all night. We got pretty popular out on the
island, playing battle of the bands, fire halls, high
school proms, for $10 a night.
Still, a career as a musician was not what he, or his
family, had had in mind. Over the next few years, he
says: “I did everything I could not to be a guitar player.
I went to college not to be a guitar player. Thinking he
would be a psychiatrist, he took pre-med classes but
didn’t complete a degree. Along the way, he continued
playing nightclubs and parties.
In his mid-20s, he visited his brother in Washing-
ton. Washington looked, to Holmes, like a good place to
be an ambitious, career-minded black man, but it also
had a thriving music scene in nightclubs and hotel
lounges, and the next 15 years played out as a sort of
tussle between his creative pursuits and his more busi-
ness-driven impulses. Trying to work his way up in the
music scene, he played five and six nights a week in
nightclubs and wrote his own music. He started a
recording studio called Sound Ideas, which trawled
local talent for the makings of a hit song, but he found
the pickings slim.
The club scene, after a long while, began to wear
on him, as well. Unwilling to resign himself to the life
of a starving artist, when an agent approached him in
the early90s about specializing in wedding and private
parties, Holmes decided to try it.
It was a revelation. I could make in one night
what I used to make in five,he says. And it changed
the culture of what I was doing.
Holmes was well-suited for the role of event band-
leader. His production skills helped him control his
band’s sound, and his familiarity with country, big-band
and classical music made him popular with audiences
who wanted, as he says, a tango or a Viennese wa
ltz,
as well as Wilson Pickett.
Because business ebbs and flows with the seasons
and the economy, Holmes has always kept a variety of
sidelines, including a job driving a limousine for nine
years to put his oldest daughter through a private high
school and college. These days, at gigs, he hands out a
stack of million-dollar bills” printed with his image
and his current enterprises: bandleader, commercial
mortgage broker, hard money lender.
Holmes uses as many as eight musicians and two
singers for weddings. He accepts turnover as a fact of
running a band, but his current core lineup has, in the
mercurial world of part-time performers, been fairly
steady. Sam Brawner, the drummer, and Atiba Taylor,
the sax player, have played with him for three and four
years, respectively, and Bruce Robinson, the key-
boardist, has played with him for 15.
This is perhaps partly because Holmes insists on
making music. During performances, he lets his musi-
cians take the lead and uses specialized, stripped-down
tracks, called digital sequences, to set the tempo and fill
in musical parts when necessary, ultimately preferring
the messy alchemy of live music to something more
canned. The musicians say that this is in contrast to
other bandleaders they’ve worked for, who often rely
heavily on recordings and use musicians more as visual
props. Holmes’s respect for the music endears him to
his musicians. These guys play from the heart, says
Robinson. They’re not just trying to get through the
gig.
11. The main purpose of the passage is to:
A. explain why Holmes’s musical tastes gradually
changed over time.
B. describe how Holmes’s hectic professional life
affects his personal life.
C . highlight the different instruments Holmes mas-
tered in becoming a famous musician.
D. document how Holmes eventually became an
enterprising bandleader.
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1 2. One theme of the passage is that:
F. one’s previous experiences and pursuits can be
useful in achieving success.
G. talent is the most important factor in achieving
success in both business and music.
H. recognizing ones limitations is necessary in over-
coming one’s failures.
J. pursuing one’s dreams should take precedence
over more practical matters.
1 3. Which of the following events referred to in the pas-
sage occurred last chronologically?
A. Taylor joined Holmess band.
B. Brawner joined Holmes’s band.
C. Holmes started driving a limousine.
D. Holmes started Sound Ideas.
14. Based on the passage, the residents of Gordon Heights
in the 1950s and 1960s would best be described as:
F. artistic and sophisticated.
G . driven and optimistic.
H . friendly and easygoing.
J. generous and dependable.
15. The main purpose of the third paragraph (lines 13–22)
is to:
A . indicate why Holmes preferred rhythm and blues
to Sinatra songs.
B . establish that Holmes’s parents disapproved of his
interest in music.
C . reveal that Holmes was considered a musical
prodigy.
D. describe what inspired Holmes to start playing
music.
1 6. The main idea of the fourth paragraph (lines 23–31) is
that:
F. Holmes was better at playing music than he was at
promoting his band.
G. Holmes’s band was able to earn money despite
having a limited repertoire.
H . Holmes’s band became a national phenomenon
despite the band members’ lack of musical talent.
J. Holmes would have had more success early on if
he had taken the time to learn more songs.
17. Based on the passage, the main reason Holmes eventu-
ally preferred playing music at weddings and private
parties to playing music i
n clubs was that:
A . he could play a wider variety of music at weddings
and private parties.
B . audiences at weddings and private parties were
easier to please.
C . weddings and private parties were more profitable.
D. weddings and private parties required less travel.
1 8. The main idea of the eleventh paragraph (lines 73–80)
is that:
F. Holmes often has to alter his musical style based
on which band members are a
vailable to play a
gig.
G . Holmes typically needs more band members to
play at weddings than he needs to play at private
parties.
H . Holmess core lineup of band members has been
relatively consistent for a business with a high
turnover rate.
J. Holmes’s core lineup of band members is con-
stantly changing because Holmes expects his
musicians to travel long distances.
19. It can most reasonably be inferred from the passage
that Holmes’s band members like playing music with
Holmes in part because, in contrast to other band lead-
ers, Holmes:
A. is familiar with big band, classical, and country
music.
B. allows band members to showcase their talents
during gigs.
C. played music in the Washington club scene for fif-
teen years.
D. uses sophisticated elements like digital sequences
during gigs.4
20. In the passage, the phrase something more canned
(lines86–87) most nearly refers to:
F. sound effects.
G . music videos.
H . improvised music.
J. recorded music.
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Passage III
INFORMATIONAL: This  passage is  adapted  from  the article
“PhotographyChanges  How  Cultural  GroupsAre  Represented
and Perceived”byEdwinSchupman2012byThe Smithson-
ian Institution).
The author of the passage is a citizen of the Muscogee (Creek)
Nation of Oklahoma.
Using photographs as educational resources pre-
sents particular challenges and must be done with care.
There is always more than face value in any photo, and
historical photos of American Indians are no exception.
Photographys rise in the late nineteenth century coin-
cided with great change in American Indian communi-
ties—an era that capped over three hundred years of
diseases, wars, cultural disruption, and land disposses-
sion. As Indian people struggled to adapt to cata-
strophic changes to their old ways of living,
photographers took thousands of studio portraits and
made what they believed to be neutral ethnographic
images of the vanishing Indian. As Indian cultures
bent under pressure to assimilate into mainstream
America, photographers routinely captured images that
compared the new civilized Indian to the tradition-
bound savages.” Indian delegations that traveled to
Washington, D.C., to defend tribal treaty rights were
photographed in studios and in front of federal build-
ings. Photographers also accompanied government
expeditions to the West where they documented tradi-
tional cultures, leading the way for tourists and com-
mercial photographers who followed, carrying their
cameras and preconceptions into Native American com-
munities. These efforts generated a legacy of photo-
graphic images of American Indian people that can
serve today as rich educational resources. But if used
carelessly, they can also fuel romanticized and stereo-
typical perceptions of American Indians.
Consider some of the many photographs of
Goyathlay, the Apache man who Mexicans named
“Geronimo.He and other Chiricahua Apaches fought a
protracted war from 1863 to 1886 against the United
States for the right to live in their traditional homelands
rather than on reservations.
The Chiricahua Apaches fight for freedom cap-
tured the American imagination in the late nineteenth
century. Geronimo, especially, became a legendary
figure and a media phenomenon whose legacy has
lasted into the twenty-first century. He became synony-
mous with courage, daring, and savage ruthlessness.
World War II paratroopers shouted his name as they
jumped from airplanes into combat. Movies, television
shows, comic books, popular songs, posters, T-shirts,
and American cities have borne his image and name.
One photo that shows Goyathlay and three other Chiric-
ahuas in their camp just prior to surrendering to U.S.
forces in 1886 documents a critical and difficult day for
the people who had fought so diligently for their
freedom.
In another well-known studi
o portrait, circa 1890,
Goyathlay poses with a rifle. To late-nineteenth-century
Americans, Geronimo was a dangerous enemy, yet at
the same time a curiosity and romantic symbol of the
“Wild West. This photo personifies the renegade image
but, strangely, it was taken about two to four years after
Goyathlay surrenderedwhile he was a prisoner of
war. Why, then, was this photo taken? What meaning
did it con
vey at the time? What must have been in
Goyathlays mind? What does the photo mean today? Is
it loaded with historical truths or is it as empty as the
prisoner’s bullet chamber?
A few years later, Goyathlay was photographed
again, this time in a more pastoral pose and place
holding a melon in a garden with his wife and three of
their children. What was the meaning behind this
photo? Did people of the time see it as a simple family
photo, or did it personify the government’s policy
toward Indians at the time—subduing feared and hated
warriors, re-educating them, and teaching them to
farm in order to guide them toward a better way of
life? Ironically, the Apaches had long farmed as part of
the traditional life they fought so tenaciously to protect.
The educational potential of photographs is enor-
mous. However, photographs are not objective; they can
easily tell as many lies as truths. As much as any writ-
ten document, they have to be read with care in order to
be understood accurately in unbiased and non-
stereotypical terms. Every photo of people contains his-
tory, culture, and context. To do justice to the subjects
and their stories, it is crucial to fill in the information
gaps. In addition to conducting background research,
try putting yourself inside these photos—stand next to
Goyathlay, his peers, his wife, and their children, and
imagine their lives—you might begin to understand the
world from their points of view. Framed with factual
information and viewed empathetically, each photo-
graph can reach its richest potential as a significant
educational opportunity and resource.
2 1. Which of the following rhetorical techniques does the
author repeatedly use in the passage as a means to
engage the reader?
A. Forthright attacks on what he labels as readers
misunderstanding of basic historical fact
B . Open-ended questions and appeals directed to
readers
C. Direct quotations from past readers of his work
that capture their responses to his ideas
D. Descriptions of his own experiences as a citizen of
the Muscogee (Creek) Nation of Oklahoma
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22. It can most reasonably be inferred that the author’s
statements about the educational use of photographs
apply to photographs taken during what time period?
F. Any time period since photographs were first
taken
G. In the nineteenth century exclusively
H. Any time period prior to the digital age, but not
beyond
J. Only in the ten years after photographers first
joined government expeditions to the West
23. Which of the following words is most nearly given a
negative connotation in the passage?
A. Educational (line 1)
B. Old (line 10)
C. Romanticized (line 28)
D. Traditional (line 34)
24. Which of the following actions referred to in the pas-
sage most clearly characterizes a hypothetical event
rather than an actual event?
F. “Traveled to” (line 17)
G. “Defend” (line 18)
H. “Farmed” (line 72)
J. “Stand next to” (line 83)
25. Particular photographs of Goyathlay are referred to
and described by the author to support his claim that:
A. accurately understanding a photograph depends on
knowing the circumstances in which a photograph
was taken.
B. photographs can be used to date events in the life
of a legendary figure like Goyathlay.
C. anyone can control his or her public image
by becoming more involved in the field of
photography.
D. the merits of a photograph from the nineteenth
century depend on who took the photograph.
26. The author most strongly suggests that one reason
commercial photographers began to photograph Native
American communities was that commercial photogra-
phers were:
F. instructed to do so by the US government.
G. devoted to creating educational resources about
Native American communities.
H. committed to overcoming their preconceived ideas
about the West.
J. influenced to do so by the photographers who had
joined government expeditions to the West.
27. In the passage, the author notes that a strange aspect of
the photo of Goyathlay with a rifle is that the photo
was taken:
A. by an unknown photographer.
B. when Goyathlay was a prisoner of war.
C. with Goyathlay’s permission.
D. by a US government photographer.
28. The author directly refers to which of the following
aspects of the photograph of Goyathlay in a garden as
being ironic?
F. Goyathlay was not a gardener but instead was in
the midst of trying to stop the US government’s
attack on his people.
G. Goyathlay’s people had long practiced farming,
but the photo seemed to suggest that Goyathlay
had learned farming from others.
H. People do not automatically think of Goyathlay as
a man of peace.
J. For years it was assumed to be a photograph of
someone other than Goyathlay.
29. The author indicates that for the sake of an unbiased
interpretation, compared to reading written documents
with care, reading photographs with care is:
A. significantly more important.
B. slightly more important.
C. just as important.
D. slightly less important.
30. In line 86, the word framed is used figuratively to
describe:
F. the way background research can support the
proper viewing of a photograph.
G. a common means of preserving a photograph.
H. a technique in which a photograph is displayed
with factual information surrounding it.
J. the manner in which many photographs of
Goyathlay are displayed in museums.
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Passage IV
INFORMATIONAL: Thi s passage is adapted from Summer
World: A Season of Bounty by Bernd Heinrich (©2009 by Bernd
Heinrich).
Adaptations of plants to deserts include dormancy
and a variety of structural and behavioral adaptations.
The majority of desert plants depend on a strategy that
capitalizes on small size. They are annuals that spring
up from dry, dormant, heat-resistant seeds. Some of
these seeds may wait up to half a century before they
are activated. The plants challenge is to be quick
enough to respond to rain so that they can produce their
seeds before the earth dries up again, while not jumping
the gun to start growth until there is sufficient water for
them to grow to maturity for seed production. Some
achieve this balance on a tightrope by measuring
rainfall. They have chemicals in their seeds that inhibit
germination, and a minimum amount of rain is required
before these are leached out. Others have seed coats
that must be mechanically scarred to permit sufficient
wetting for germination, and the scarring happens only
when they are subjected to flash floods in the riverbeds
where they grow. A plant in the Negev Desert releases
its seed from a tough capsule only under the influence
of water through a mechanism that resembles a Roman
ballistic machine. Its two outer sepals generate side-
ways tension that can fling two seeds out of the fruit,
but the two seeds are held inside by a lock mechanism
at the top. However, when the sepals are sufficiently
wetted, then the tension increases to such an extent that
the lock mechanism snaps, and the capsule explodes
and releases the seeds.
In moist regions where it rains predictably (though
not necessarily in abundance), we help agricultural
plants to capture the precipitation by scarring the soil to
facilitate the infiltration of the water into it, and hence
into the roots. Least runoff and maximum water absorp-
tion are achieved by plowing the soil. However, such a
strategy would not work in a true desert such as the
Negev. A different program is required there because
rain is infrequent and plowing would facilitate only the
evaporation of scarce water from the soil. The solution
applied by the peoples who inhabited the Negev in past
centuries was a practice they called runoff farming.
Farmers had mastered harnessing the flash floods that
rush down into the gullies by catching the runoffs—not
only by making terraces but also by building large cis-
terns into which the water was directed to be held for
later use. Remnants of these constructions still exist.
Water-storage mechanisms have been invented by
other organisms living in deserts, but mainly through
modifications of body plan. Many plants, especially
cacti and euphorbia, have the ability to swell their roots
or stems with water stores. Possibly the most familiar is
the saguaro cactus, Carnegiea gigantea, of the Sonoran
desert in the American southwest. It has a shallow root
system that extends in all directions to distances of
about its height, fifty feet. In one rainstorm the root
system can soak up 200 gallons of water, which are
transferred into its tall trunk. This trunk is pleated like
an accordion and can swell to store tons of water that
can last the plant for a year. The cactus has no leaves,
but the stem is green and can photosynthesize and pro-
duce nutrients as well as store water. The saguaros sur-
vival strategy requires it to grow extremely slowly. But
it lives a century or more.
Some desert animals similarly store water. The
frog Cyclorana platycephala, from the northern Aus-
tralian desert, fills up and greatly expands its urinary
bladder to use as a water bag be
fore burying itself in
the soil, where it spends most of the year waiting for
the next rain. While in the ground it sloughs off skin
and forms around itself a nearly waterproof cocoon that
resembles a plastic bag and reduces evaporative water
loss.
Desert ants of a variety of species (of at least
seven different genera) in American as well as Aus-
tralian deserts collectively called honeypot ants” have
evolved a solution that combines water storage with
energy storage. Ants typically feed each other; and
some of the larger worker ants may take up more liquid
than the others, and others may bring more. Those that
take the fluid may gorge themselves until they distend
their abdomens up to the size of a grape, by which time
they are unable to move from the spot. They then hang
in groups of dozens to hundreds from the ceiling of a
chamber in the ant nest, where they are then the spe-
cialized so-called repletes that later regurgitate fluid
when the colony members are no longer bringing the
fluid in but rather needing it.
3 1. The fourth paragraph (lines 63–71) marks a shift in the
focus of the passage from:
A . plants that store water above ground to plants that
store water below ground.
B . animals that don’t go dormant to animals that do
go dormant.
C . desert-dwelling plants to desert-dwelling animals.
D. inhabitants of the Negev Desert to inhabitants of
northern Australian deserts.
3 2. Based on the passage, the author’s use of the word
measuring (line 12) most nearly describes the way
that some desert plants:
F. have roots that are extremely sensitive to moisture
levels in the soil.
G . have methods of delaying seed germination until a
certain amount of water is present.
H . are visibly more vigorous after a rainfall.
J. can calculate how many inches of rain have fallen
in recent days.
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33. Which of the following statements best summarizes the
process by which the frog Cyclorana platycephala sur-
vives in the desert?
A. The frog stores water in its body, buries itself, and
conserves water until emerging at the next rain.
B. The frog buries itself, waits for rain, absorbs rain-
water through its skin, and emerges.
C. The frog forms a nearly waterproof cocoon around
itself, buries itself, and waits to emerge until it
needs water.
D. The frog buries itself, absorbs water through its
skin, and goes dormant until springtime.
34. Based on the passage, which of the following plants
and animals employ a communal strategy to survive in
the desert?
F. The saguaro cactus only
G. The saguaro cactus and the frog Cyclorana platy-
cephala only
H. The frog Cyclorana platycephala and honeypot
ants only
J. Honeypot ants only
35. The passage most strongly suggests that compared to
the frog Cyclorana platycephala, the honeypot ants are
unique in that they:
A. can store water inside their bodies.
B. live in Australian deserts.
C. combine water storage with energy storage.
D. go dormant during dry times.
36. Which of the following provides the best paraphrase of
lines 7–11?
F. Annual plants survive in deserts by making seeds
swiftly when conditions are right.
G. Annual plants in deserts make seeds during dry
conditions so the seeds will be ready when rain
arrives.
H. Dry conditions require the seeds of desert plants to
start germination prior to the arrival of rain.
J. The seeds of annual plants in deserts are designed
to wait years for the right conditions for growth.
37. Based on the passage, it can most reasonably be
inferred that the scarring some seeds require before
germination is accomplished through:
A. intense drying experienced between rainfalls.
B. internal tension from the seed capsule’s sepals.
C. chemicals in the seeds.
D. abrasion sustained during flash floods.
38. As it is used in line 26, the word extent most nearly
means:
F. length.
G. degree.
H. reach.
J. boundary.
39. According to the passage, which of the following
actions did people in the Negev Desert take in order to
farm there?
A. Plowing the soil
B. Widening gullies
C. Constructing terraces
D. Constructing aqueducts
40. Based on the passage, the pleats in the body of the
saguaro cactus:
F. increase the efficiency of photosynthesis.
G. allow the cactus to expand for storing water.
H. reduce evaporative water loss.
J. regulate the cactus’s growth.
END OF TEST 3
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Passage I
In a particular playa (relatively flat, dry desert basin)
evidence shows that some large rocks have moved along
the surface, leaving shallow trails in the clay sediment,
some up to several hundred meters long. Three scientists
provided explanations for how these rocks moved.
Scientist1
In the spring, snowmelt from surrounding mountains
runs downhill and collects in the playa. At night, cold tem-
peratures cause this water to freeze around the rocks. When
temperatures rise again, the ice begins to melt, leaving a
layer of mud on the surface and ice “rafts” around the
rocks. The buoyancy of the ice rafts floats the rocks on top
of the mud such that even light winds can then push the
rocks along the surface. Evidence of this lifting is seen in
that the trails left by rocks are both shallow and only about
2/3 as wide as the rocks themselves. Due to the combina-
tion of ice, mud, and light winds, the rocks are able to
move several hundred meters in a few days.
Scientist2
Snowmelt from surrounding mountains does collect in
the playa during the spring. However, the temperature in
the playa does not get cold enough for ice to form. When
the playa’s surface gets wet, the top layer of clay trans-
forms into a slick, muddy film. In addition, dormant algae
present in the dry clay begin to grow rapidly when the clay
becomes wet. The presence of mud and algae reduces fric-
tion between the rocks and the clay. Even so, relatively
strong winds are required to push the rocks along the wet
surface, forming trails. Due to the combination of mud,
algae, and strong winds, the rocks are able to move several
hundred meters in a few hours.
Scientist3
Water does collect in the playa, producing mud and
ice. However, neither mud nor ice is responsible for the
rocks’ movements. The playa is located along a fault line
between tectonic plates. Minor vertical shifts in the plates
cause the rocks to move downhill, leaving trails. Due to the
combination of tectonic plate movement and strong winds,
the rocks are able to move only a few meters over several
years.
1. According to Scientist 2, friction between the rocks
and the clay is reduced by which of the following?
A. Ice only
B. Algae only
C. Ice and mud only
D. Mud and algae only
2. Suppose a researcher observed that wind speeds
greater than 80 milesperhour are needed to move the
rocks in the playa. This observation is consistent with
which of the scientists’ explanations?
F. Scientists1 and2 only
G. Scientists1 and3 only
H. Scientists2 and3 only
J. Scientists1, 2, and 3
3. Suppose that no seismic activity was recorded in the
playa where the trails left by the rocks are found. This
finding would weaken which of the scientists’
explanations?
A. Scientist1 only
B. Scientist3 only
C. Scientist1 and Scientist2 only
D. Scientist2 and Scientist3 only
4. Suppose it were discovered that a particular rock
formed a 200 m long trail in 72 hr. Would this discov-
ery support Scientist1’s explanation?
F. Yes; Scientist 1 indicated the rocks can move sev-
eral hundred meters in a few hours.
G. Yes; Scientist 1 indicated the rocks can move sev-
eral hundred meters in a few days.
H. No; Scientist 1 indicated the rocks can move sev-
eral hundred meters in a few hours.
J. No; Scientist 1 indicated the rocks can move sev-
eral hundred meters in a few days.
SCIENCE TEST
35 Minutes—40 Questions
DIRECTIONS: There are several passages in this test.
Each passage is followed by several questions. After
reading a passage, choose the best answer to each
question and fill in the corresponding oval on your
answer document. You may refer to the passages as
often as necessary.
You are NOT permitted to use a calculator on this test.
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5 . Suppose that during one year there was no measurable
movement of any rocks in the playa during the spring.
Scientists 1 and 2 would most likely both agree that
this was due to the absence of which of the following
factors?
A. Algae
B. Snowmelt
C. Strong winds
D. Subzero temperatures
6 . Suppose that air temperature in the playa varies
between 4°C and 4C. Would this information sup-
port the explanation of Scie
ntist2?
F. Yes, because ice cannot form in that temperature
range.
G . Yes, because ice can form in that temperature
range.
H . No, because ice cannot form in that temperature
range.
J. No, because ice can form in that temperature
range.
7 . Based on Scientist 1s explanation, a rock trail that is
33 cm wide was most likely made by a rock with
approximately what width?
A . 10cm
B. 25cm
C . 50cm
D. 65cm
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Passage II
When certain substances are added to diet cola, CO
2
gas is produced, generating a foam. Two experiments were
done to study this process.
In each trial, an apparatus like that shown in Figure 1
was used as follows: A jar was nearly filled with H
2
O and
fitted with a 2-holed lid. One end of a tube (Tube B) was
inserted through one of the holes and submerged. The other
end of Tube B was placed in an empty graduated cylinder.
Another tube (Tube A) was inserted through the other hole
in the lid. A certain solid substance was inserted into the
other end of Tube A, and the substance was secured by a
clamp. Tube A was then attached to a freshly opened bottle
containing 355 mL of diet cola. The clamp was removed,
releasing the substance into the diet cola. The foam that
was produced traveled into the jar, and liquid was trans-
ferred into the cylinder. The mass of CO
2
produced was
calculated based on the volume of liquid that was measured
in the cylinder after foaming had ceased.
Figure 1
Experiment 1
In each of Trials 14, a different 1 of 4 substances of
equal mass—a piece of chalk, a sugar cube, a fruit-flavored
piece of candy, or a mint-flavored piece of candywas
added to a bottle of diet cola at C. See Table 1.
Experiment 2
In each of Trials 58, Trial 4 from Experiment 1 was
repeated, except that the temperature of the diet cola was
different in each trial. See Table 2.
Tables 1 and 2 adapted from Christopher J. Huber and Aaron M.
Massari, Quantifying the Soda Geyser. ©2014 by Division of
Chemical Education, Inc., American Chemical Society.
Table 1
Trial Substance
Volume of liquid
in cylinder
(mL)
Mass of CO
2
produced
(g)
1 chalk 699 1.36
2 sugar cube 570 1.11
3 fruit candy 525 1.02
4 mint candy 631 1.23
Table 2
Trial
Temperature
C)
Volume of liquid
in cylinder
(mL)
Mass of CO
2
produced
(g)
5 10 598 1.130
6 25 539 0.969
7 45 501 0.844
8 60 476 0.766
bottle jar graduated
cylinder
Tube A Tube B
substance
c
lamp
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8 . If another trial had been performed in Experiment 2
and 450 mL of liquid had been measured in the cylin-
der, the temperature of the diet cola in this trial would
most likely have been:
F. less than 25°C.
G. between 2C and 4C.
H. between 4C and 6C.
J. greater than 6C.
9 . Suppose Trial 6 had been repeated, but the bottle of
diet cola had been opened and then left undisturbed at
25°C for 12 hours before it
was attached to the appara-
tus. Would the mass of CO
2
produced in this trial likely
be greater than 0.969g or less than 0.969g?
A . Greater, because over the 12 hours, the concentra-
tion of CO
2
in the diet cola would have decreased.
B . Greater, because over the 12 hours, the concentra-
tion of CO
2
in the diet cola would have increased.
C . Less, because over the 12 hours, the concentration
of CO
2
in the diet cola would have decreased.
D. Less, because over the 12 hours, the concentration
of CO
2
in the diet cola would have increased.
1 0. One millimole (mmol) of CO
2
has a mass of 0.044 g.
How many trials resulted in the production of at least
1 mmol of CO
2
?
F. 1
G. 4
H. 5
J. 8
1 1. According to Figure 1, which of Tube A and Tube B, if
either, had at least one end submerged in a liquid
before the clamp was removed?
A . Tube A only
B . Tube B only
C . Both Tube A and TubeB
D. Neither Tube A nor TubeB
12. Is the relationship between the volume of liquid in the
cylinder at the end of the experiment and the mass of
CO
2
produced a direct relationship or an inverse
relationship?
F. Direct; as the volume of liquid that was measured
in the cylinder increased, the mass of CO
2
pro-
duced increased.
G . Direct; as the volume of liquid that was measured
in the cylinder increased, the mass of CO
2
pro-
duced decreased.
H . Inverse; as the volume of liquid that was measured
in the cylinder increased, the mass of CO
2
pro-
duced increased.
J. Inverse; as the volume of liquid that was measured
in the cylinder increased, the mass of CO
2
pro-
duced decreased.
13. Consider these steps that were performed in each trial.
1. Removing clamp
2. Measuring liquid in cylinder
3. Inserting a solid substance into TubeA
4. Attaching TubeA to a bottle of diet cola
According to the procedure, these steps were per-
formed in what sequence?
A . 3, 1, 2, 4
B . 3, 4, 1, 2
C. 4, 2, 3, 1
D. 4, 3, 1, 2
1 4. Assume that room temperature is 2C. In how many
trials was the diet cola tested at a temperature lower
than room temperature?
F. 1
G . 2
H . 5
J. 8
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Passage III
Scientists studied the effects of pH and of nickel con-
centration on plant growth and on the uptake of iron and
zinc by plants. Recently germinated seedlings of SpeciesM
and Species U were fed 1 of 12 nutrient solutions (Solu-
tions 112) for 8 days and then were harvested. Solu-
tions 112 differed only in pH and/or nickel concentration.
Table 1 shows, for each species, the average dry mass of
the plants that were fed each nutrient solution. Figure 1
shows, for each species, the average iron content and the
average zinc content of the plants that were fed Solu -
tions14.
Figure 1
15. According to Figure 1, as the nickel concentration in
the nutrient solutions increased, the average iron con-
tent of SpeciesM plants:
A. increased only.
B. decreased only.
C. increased, then decreased.
D. decreased, then increased.
average iron or zinc content (μg/g*)
1,000
900
800
700
600
500
400
300
200
100
0
0 5 10 15
nickel concentration (μM)
*μg/g = micrograms of iron or zinc per gram of plant dry
mass
Key
Species M
Species U
Species M
Species U
iron zinc
Table 1
Solution pH
Nickel
concentration
(μM*)
Average dry mass (g)
of plants of Species:
MU
017 00 33.9 10.7
027 05 28.8 10.7
037 10 23.8 09.6
047 15 18.7 08.5
056 00 33.9 09.2
066 05 28.8 09.2
076 10 23.8 08.1
086 15 18.7 07.0
095 00 27.8 07.7
10 5 05 22.7 07.7
11 5 10 17.6 06.6
12 5 15 12.4 05.4
*μM = micromoles per liter
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1 6. According to Table 1, the Species U plants that were
fed the solution that had a pH of 6 and a nickel concen-
tration of 10 μM had an average dry mass of:
F. 07.0g.
G. 08.1g.
H. 09.2g.
J. 23.8g.
1 7. According to Table1, SpeciesM plants that were fed a
nutrient solution with which of the following combina-
tions of pH and nickel concentration had the greatest
average dry mass?
pH nickel concentration
A . 6 0μM
B . 6 5μM
C . 5 0μM
D. 5 5μM
18. According to Table 1 and Figure 1, the Species M
plants that were fed Solution 3 had an average zinc
content of:
F. 100μg/g.
G . 150μg/g.
H . 200μg/g.
J. 400μg/g.
19. According to Table 1 and Figure 1, for the Species M
plants that were fed Solutions 14, what was the order
of the nutrient solutions, from the solution that
resulted in the lowest average iron content to the solu-
tion that
resulted in the highest average iron content?
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 4, 3, 2
C . 4, 2, 1, 3
D. 4, 3, 2, 1
2 0. According to Table 1, compared to the average dry
mass of Species U plants that were fed Solution 3, the
average dry mass of Species M plants that were fed
Solution 6 was approximately:
F. as great.
G. as great.
H. 2 times as great.
J. 3 times as great.
1
__
3
1
__
2
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Passage IV
Ammonia (NH
3
) can be produced according to the
chemical equation
N
2
+ 3H
2
2NH
3
The equilibrium arrow ( ) indicates that this reaction
proceeds in both directions until it is at equilibrium, so that
both the forward reaction (production of NH
3
) and the
backward reaction (production of N
2
and H
2
) occur at the
same rate. Equilibrium can be shifted forward or backward
by changing the temperature, pressure, or concentration of
reactants or products.
Two experiments were done using the following appa-
ratus to produce NH
3
.
In each trial, Steps14 occurred:
1. A fresh catalyst (CatalystW, X, Y, orZ), 160 kg of H
2
,
and 745 kg of N
2
were placed in the reactor.
2. The H
2
and N
2
reacted at a constant temperature and a
constant pressure until equilibrium was established.
3. A mixture of NH
3
and any unreacted H
2
and N
2
flowed
through Pipe A to a 50°C condenser at 1 atmosphere
(atm) of pressure.
4. NH
3
condensed and exited the apparatus. (H
2
and N
2
do
not condense at 50°C.) Any unreacted H
2
and N
2
flowed into PipeB, returning to the reactor.
Steps 24 reoccurred in cycles until no more H
2
and N
2
returned from the condenser.
Experiment1
A set of 9 trials was conducted with each of the 4 cat-
alysts. For each set, the pressure was 150 atm; within each
set, the temperature was different for each trial. Figure 1
shows, for each trial, the number of cycles of Steps 24.
Figure 1
Experiment2
Four sets of 9 trials each were conducted with Cata-
lyst Z. For each set, the temperature was different; within
each set, the pressure was different for each trial. Figure 2
shows, for each trial, the amount of NH
3
produced in the
first cycle of Steps24.
Figure 2
temperature (°C)
number of cycles
50
45
40
35
30
25
20
15
10
5
0
300 350 400
450
500
Key
Catalyst W
Catalyst X
Catalyst Y
Catalyst Z
H
2
N
2
Pipe A
Pipe B
NH
3
reactor
condenser
diagram of apparatus
pressure (atm)
amount of NH
3
(kg)
700
600
500
400
300
200
100
100 150 200
250
300
Key
300°C
350°C
400°C
450°C
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Diagram and figures adapted from Jayant M. Modak,Haber
Process for Ammonia Synthesis. ©2002 by Indian Academy of
Sciences.
2 1. According to the results of Experiment 1, for any given
catalyst, as the temperature was increased, the number
of cycles needed to complete the reaction:
A. increased only.
B . decreased only.
C. increased, then decreased.
D. decreased, then increased.
2 2. In Experiment 1, 26 cycles were needed to complete
the reaction at 45C when which catalyst was used?
F. CatalystW
G . CatalystX
H . CatalystY
J. CatalystZ
23. The movement of H
2
and N
2
through the apparatus as
Steps 14 occurred is best represented by which of the
following expressions?
A . Reactor condenser PipeA PipeB
B . Condenser reactor PipeA PipeB
C . Reactor PipeA condenser PipeB
D. Condenser PipeA reactor PipeB
2 4. Consider th
e results of Experiment 1 for 375°C. All
the H
2
and N
2
were consumed in less than 20 cycles
when which catalysts were used?
F. Catalysts W and X only
G. Catalysts Y and Z only
H . Catalysts W, X, and Y only
J. Catalysts X, Y, and Z only
2 5. If a trial had been performed in Experiment 2 at 42C
and 225 atm, the amount of NH
3
produced would most
likely have been:
A . less than 230kg.
B . between 230kg and 320kg.
C . between 320kg and 410kg.
D. greater than 410kg.
2 6. At 1 atm of pressure, the melting point of NH
3
is
77°C and the boiling point of NH
3
is 33°C. Based
on this information and the description of the appara-
tus, when the NH
3
exited the condenser, was it more
likely a solid or a liquid?
F. Solid, because the temperature of the condenser
was lower than the melting point of NH
3
and the
boiling point of NH
3
.
G . Solid, because the temperature of the condenser
was between the melting point of NH
3
and the
boiling point of NH
3
.
H . Liquid, because the temperature of the condenser
was higher than the melting point of NH
3
and the
boiling point of NH
3
.
J. Liquid, because the temperature of the condenser
was between the melting point of NH
3
and the
boiling point of NH
3
.
2 7. Consider the trial in Experiment 2 that produced
550 kg of NH
3
. Based on Figure 1, the number of
cycles that were needed to complete the reaction in this
trial was most likely:
A . less than 5.
B . between 5 and 10.
C . between 10 and 15.
D. greater than 15.
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ACT-2176CPRE
44
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Passage V
As a sound wave travels through a medium, the wave
becomes attenuated (loses energy). The attenuation coeffi-
cient, α, is the rate at which the waves intensity level (a
measure of sound volume) decreases with distance as a
result of this energy loss; the greater the value of α, the
greater the decrease in intensity level with distance.
Figure 1 shows, for waves of 3 different frequencies (in
hert
z, Hz), how α (in decibels per kilometer, dB/km) varies
with temperature in air at 10% relative humidity.
Figure 1
Figure 2 shows, for waves of 3 different frequencies,
how α varies with relative humidity in air at 20°C.
Figure 2
Figures adapted from Richard Lord, “Calculation of Absorption of
Sound by the Atmosphere.©2004 National Physical Laboratory.
24
21
18
15
12
9
6
3
0
α (dB/km)
20 0 20 40 60 80
100
temperature (°C)
Key
1,000 Hz
 500 Hz
 200 Hz
14
12
10
8
6
4
2
0
α (dB/km)
10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 9
0
relative humidity (percent)
Key
1,000 Hz
 500 Hz
 200 Hz
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44
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2 8. What is the approximate maximum α shown in
Figure 1 for a 200 Hz sound wave in air at 10% relative
humidity, and at approximately what temperature does
that maximum occur?
α (dB/km) temperature(°C)
F. 3.0 5
G . 3.0 35
H . 9.5 5
J. 9.5 35
29. Based on Figure 2, the attenuation coefficient for a
1,000 Hz sound wave in air at 2C reaches a minimum
value at a relative humidity closest to which of the
following?
A . 25%
B . 45%
C . 65%
D. 85%
30. For the range of temperatures and the range of relative
humidities shown in Figures1 and2, respectively, is α
for a 200 Hz sound wave more strongly affected by
changes in temperature or by changes in relative
humidity?
F. Temperature, because the maximum variation in α
is about 0.5 dB/km in Figure 1 but about 2.5 dB/km
in Figure2.
G . Temperature, because the maximum variation in α
is about 2.5 dB/km in Figure 1 but about 0.5 dB/km
in Figure2.
H . Relative humidity, because the maximum variation
in α is about 0.5 dB/km in Figure 1 but about
2.5 dB/km in Figure 2.
J. Relative humidity, because the maximum variation
in α is about 2.5 dB/km in Figure 1 but about
0.5dB/km in Figure2.
31. Consider a 1,000 Hz sound wave in air at 10% relative
humidity. At how many of the temperatures shown in
Figure 1 does α for this wave have a value of
18dB/km?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
3 2. Suppose that 2 sound wavesa 150 Hz wave and a
1,100 Hz waveare simultaneously emitted from a
speaker into air at 20°C and 45% relative humidity.
Based o
n Figure 2, as the waves travel away from the
speaker, the intensity level of which wave will more
likely decrease at the greater rate due to attenuation?
F. The 150 Hz wave, because the value of α is lesser
for the 150 Hz wave than for the 1,100Hz wave.
G. The 150 Hz wave, because the value of α is greater
for the 150 Hz wave than for the 1,100 Hz wave.
H. The 1,100 Hz wave, because the value of α is
lesser for the
1,100 Hz wave than for the 150 Hz
wave.
J. The 1,100 Hz wave, because the value of α is
greater for the 1,100 Hz wave than for the 150 Hz
wave.
3 3. The graph below shows, for sound waves of 3 different
frequencies, how α varies with relative humidity in air
at a particular temperature.
Based on Figure 1, the particular air temperature is
most likely which of the following?
A . 20°C
B . 000°C
C. 02C
D. 100°C
20
16
12
8
4
0
α (dB/km)
10 20 30 40 5
0
relative humidity (percent)
1,000 Hz
500 Hz
200 Hz
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Passage VI
Three studies compared the effects of 5 sweeteners
(SweetenersQU) on food consumption by rats and on the
concentrations of leptin and ghrelin (hormones that regu-
late appetite) in the blood of rats. Sweeteners QU differ
only in the percent by mass of fructose and of glucose (see
Table1).
S tudy1
Each of 5 groups (Groups 15) of rats was assigned a
solution having a 100 g/L concentration of 1 o
f the
5 sweeteners. Each rat was placed in a separate cage and
provided unlimited access to the assigned sweetener solu-
tion and to solid food for 56 days. Table 2 shows, for each
group, the amounts of sweetener solution and solid food
consumed per rat per day. On Day 56, blood was collected
from each rat for analysis in Studies2 and3.
Table2 adapted from Heather R. Light et al., The Type of Caloric
Sweetener Added to Water Influences Weight Gain, Fat Mass, and
Reproduction in Growing Sprague-Dawley Female Rats.” ©2009 by
the Society for Experimental Biology and Medicine.
S tudy2
A 1 mL blood sample from each rat was placed in a
separate test tube containing 0.2 mL of Ind icatorN (which
reacts with leptin to form a blue dye). The concentration of
blue dye in each tube was directly proportional to the leptin
concentration in the blood sample. Table 3 shows the leptin
concentration per sample for each group.
Study3
Study 2 was repeated, except that Indicator P (which
reacts with ghrelin to form a yellow dye) was used instead
of Indicator N. The concentration of yellow dye in each
tube was directly proportional to the ghrelin concentration
in the blood sample (see Table4).
Tables 3 and 4 adapted from Andreas Lindqvist, Annemie
Baelemans, and Charlotte Erlanson-Albertsson, Effects of
Sucrose, Glucose and Fructose on Peripheral and Central Appetite
Signals.©2008 by Elsevier B.V.
Table3
Group Sweetener
Leptin
concentration
per sample
(pM*)
1Q 804
2R 622
3S 553
4T 475
5U 251
*picomolar
Table4
Group Sweetener
Ghrelin
concentration
per sample
(pM)
1Q 0,852
2R 1,125
3S 1,279
4T 1,450
5U 1,758
Table1
Sweetener
Percent by mass of:
fructose glucose
Q 000 100
R 042 058
S 050 050
T 055 045
U 100 000
Table2
Group Sweetener
Amount consumed
per rat per day
sweetener
solution
(mL)
solid
food
(g)
1Q 73 09
2R 55 14
3S 52 16
4T 48 18
5U 29 23
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ACT-2176CPRE
44
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ACT-2176CPRE
44
3 4. In Study 1, as the ratio of fructose to glucose in the
sweetener solutions increased, the amount of sweet-
ener solution consumed per rat per day:
F. increased only.
G. decreased only.
H. increased and then decreased.
J. decreased and then increased.
3 5. In Study 1, the amount of sweetener solution con-
sumed daily by each rat could be measured because
which of the following steps had been taken?
A. The ratsac
cess to solid food had been restricted.
B . The rats access to solid food had not been
restricted.
C. The rats had been placed in the same cage.
D. The rats had been placed in separate cages.
3 6. Suppose that a sweetener composed of 46% fructose
and 54% glucose by mass had been tested in Study 1.
Based on Table 1 and the results of Study 3, the ghrelin
concentration per sample would most likely have been:
F. less than 852pM.
G. between 852pM and 1,125pM.
H. between 1,125pM and 1,279pM.
J. greater than 1,279pM.
3 7. Consider the claim The group of rats that consumed
the lowest amount of solid food per rat per day was
also the group that had the lowest concentration of
leptin per sample. Do the results of Studies 1 and 2
support this claim?
A . Yes; the rats in Group 1 consumed the lowest
amount of solid food per rat per day and also had
the lowest concentration of leptin per sample.
B . Yes; the rats in Group 5 consumed the lowest
amount of solid food per rat per day and also had
the lowest concentration of leptin per sample.
C . No; the rats in Group 1 consumed the lowest
amount of solid food per rat per day, but the rats in
Group 5 had the lowest concentration of leptin per
sample.
D. No; the rats in Group 5 consumed the lowest
amount of solid food per rat per day, but the rats in
Group 1 had the lowest concentration of leptin per
sample.
3 8. Which of the following groups of rats should have
been included in Study 1 to serve as a control for the
effect of consuming a sweetener solution on the con-
sumption of solid food by rats? A group of rats that
had access:
F. only to water.
G. only to solid food.
H. only to water and solid food
.
J. to neither water nor solid food.
3 9. Consider the sweetener that resulted in a solid food
consumption of 16 g per rat per day in Study 1. Based
on Table 1, how many grams of fructose would be
present in 200g of this sweetener?
A . 050g
B . 100g
C . 150g
D. 200g
4 0. The experimental designs of Studies 2 and 3 were
identical with respect to which of the factors listed
below, if either?
I. The chemical indicator tha
t was used
II. The hormone with which the chemical indica-
tor reacted
F. I only
G . II only
H . Both I and II
J. Neither I nor II
END OF TEST 4
STOP! DO NOT RETURN TO ANY OTHER TEST.
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Examen de redacción de práctica
Directions
This is a test of your writing skills. You will have forty (40) minutes to read the prompt, plan your
response, and write an essay in English. Before you begin working, read all material in this test
booklet carefully to understand exactly what you are being asked to do.
You will write your essay on the lined pages in the answer document provided. Your writing on
those pages will be scored. You may use the unlined pages in this test booklet to plan your
essay. Your work on these pages will not be scored.
Your essay will be evaluated based on the evidence it provides of your ability to:
clearly state your own perspective on a complex issue and analyze the relationship
between your perspective and at least one other perspective
develop and support your ideas with reasoning and examples
organize your ideas clearly and logically
communicate your ideas effectively in standard written English
Lay your pencil down immediately when time is called.
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL TOLD TO DO SO.
WRITING TEST
BOOKLET
PO Box 168
Iowa City, IA 52243-0168
Form 21BM20
©2021 by ACT, Inc. All rights reserved.
NOTE: This test material is the condential copyrighted property of ACT, Inc., and may not be copied,
reproduced, sold, scanned, emailed, or otherwise transferred without the prior express written permission
of ACT, Inc. Violators of ACT’s copyrights are subject to civil and criminal penalties.
You must take the multiple-choice tests before you take the writing test.
Your Signature:
(Do not print.)
Print Your Name Here:
Your Date of Birth:
Month Day Year
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Extracurricular Activities and Codes of Conduct
For many students, extracurricular activities are a meaningful part of the high school experience.
These activities allow students to develop their skills in areas such as sports, music, and drama
while building relationships with peers and gaining experience performing or competing. But at
many schools, students who participate in extracurricular activities are subject to special codes of
conduct. These codes often establish high standards for academic performance and behavior, and
students must meet the standards to stay eligible for their activities. Should students who
participate in extracurricular activities be subject to special codes of conduct?
Read and carefully consider these perspectives. Each suggests a particular way of thinking
about the question above.
Perspective One Perspective Two Perspective Three
All school rules and
standards must apply
equally to every
student. It is unfair to
hold students who play
sports or music to
higher standards than
students who do not.
Participation in school
activities is a privilege,
not a right. It is fair to
ask students to earn
this privilege by
studying hard and
behaving themselves.
School programs
should be open to
all students. Not all
students can meet high
standards, which means
not all students
can participate in
extracurricular
activities.
Essay Task
Write a unified, coherent essay in which you address the question of whether
students who participate in extracurricular activities should be subject to
special codes of conduct. In your essay, be sure to:
clearly state your own perspective and analyze the relationship between
your perspective and at least one other perspective
develop and support your ideas with reasoning and examples
organize your ideas clearly and logically
communicate your ideas effectively in standard written English
Your perspective may be in full agreement with any of those given, in partial
agreement, or completely different.
Form 21BM20
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Planning Your Essay
Your work on these prewriting pages will not be scored.
Use the space below and on the back cover to generate ideas and plan your essay. You may
wish to consider the following as you think critically about the task:
Strengths and weaknesses of different perspectives on the issue
What insights do they offer, and what do they fail to consider?
Why might they be persuasive to others, or why might they fail to persuade?
Your own knowledge, experience, and values
What is your perspective on this issue, and what are its strengths and weaknesses?
How will you support your perspective in your essay?
Nota
y Para tu ensayo de práctica, necesitarás papel borrador para planicar tu ensayo y cuatro
hojas de papel con rayas para tu respuesta.
y El día del examen, si tomarás el examen impreso, recibirás un cuadernillo del examen
con espacio para planicar tu ensayo y un documento de respuestas con cuatro
páginas con rayas para escribir tu respuesta.
y Lee la información y las instrucciones en las páginas 7173 sobre la manera de
calicar tu examen de redacción de práctica.
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Cortar aquí
Documento de respuestas de práctica
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Cómo calicar
los exámenes de
opción múltiple
Sigue las instrucciones que aparecen a
continuación y en las siguientes páginas para
calicar tus exámenes de opción múltiple de
práctica y para revisar tu desempeño.
Calicaciones sin procesar
El número de preguntas que contestaste
correctamente en cada sección del examen
es tu calicación sin procesar. Debido a la
diversidad de modalidades del examen ACT,
cada una con preguntas distintas, el nivel de
dicultad varía entre las distintas modalidades.
Por ejemplo, una calicación sin procesar de
35 en una forma del examen de matemáticas
puede ser tan difícil de obtener como una
calicación sin procesar de 37 en otra forma de
esa sección del examen.
Cálculo de calicaciones sin procesar:
para calcular tus calicaciones sin procesar,
revisa tus respuestas con la información
de calicación en las claves y la tabla de
conversión, comenzando en la página siguiente
y haz lo siguiente:
1. Marca un uno (1) en el espacio en blanco
por cada pregunta que hayas contestado
correctamente.
2. Cuenta las respuestas correctas para cada
una de las cuatro secciones del examen de
opción múltiple.
3. Suma el total correcto para cada categoría
y sección del examen y captúralo como se
indica debajo de su clave de calicación.
Estos números son tus calicaciones sin
procesar de las secciones individuales del
examen de opción múltiple. La calicación
sin procesar más alta para una sección
determinada del examen es la cantidad de
preguntas incluidas en esa sección del examen:
Inglés: 75
Matemáticas: 60
Lectura: 40
Ciencia: 40
Nota: Las calicaciones sin procesar también
se proporcionan como parte del reporte de
resumen para cada sección del examen que se
tome en línea en TestNav.
Sección del examen 1, inglés
Clave de calicación para inglés (para el
formulario 2176CPRE)
Categorías del reporte de inglés
(Capturar calicaciones sin procesar/respuestas
correctas).
Producción de redacción (POW) = de 23
Conocimiento de la lengua (KLA) = de 12
Convenciones del inglés estándar (CSE) = de 40
Total de inglés (POW + KLA + CSE) = de 75
Número
para
inglés
Respuesta
correcta
Correcta
(Marca 1)
Categorías
del reporte
1 C CSE
2 J P O W
3 A KLA
4 F P O W
5 C KLA
6 J CSE
7 B KLA
8 G P O W
9 A CSE
10 J P O W
11 B CSE
12 J CSE
13 C CSE
14 F P O W
15 C P O W
16 F CSE
17 D KLA
18 J CSE
19 C CSE
20 J KLA
21 B P O W
22 J CSE
23 D CSE
24 J CSE
25 B P O W
26 H P O W
27 B CSE
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Número
para
inglés
Respuesta
correcta
Correcta
(Marca 1)
Categorías
del reporte
28 H P O W
29 A
P O W
30 H
CSE
31 A
CSE
32 G
CSE
33 A
KLA
34 J
CSE
35 A
CSE
36 H KLA
37 D CSE
38 G P O W
39 C P O W
40 F CSE
41 C CSE
42 J CSE
43 B P O W
44 G P O W
45 C P O W
46 J CSE
47 A CSE
48 G CSE
49 A CSE
50 H CSE
51 C P O W
52 H P O W
53 D CSE
54 J KLA
55 A CSE
56 J P O W
57 D CSE
58 G CSE
59 A KLA
60 G P O W
61 C CSE
62 J KLA
63 B CSE
64 G KLA
Número
para
inglés
Respuesta
correcta
Correcta
(Marca 1)
Categorías
del reporte
65 D CSE
66 G
P O W
67 A
CSE
68 G
CSE
69 C
P O W
70 G
CSE
71 A
CSE
72 J
P O W
73 A CSE
74 G CSE
75 A KLA
Sección del examen 2, matemáticas
Clave de calicación para matemáticas
(para el formulario 2176CPRE)
Categorías del reporte de matemáticas
(Capturar calicaciones sin procesar/respuestas
correctas).
Preparación para matemáticas de nivel
superior (PHM) = de 35 (A + F + G + N + S)
A = Álgebra
F = Funciones
G = Geometría
N = Número y cantidad
S = Estadística y probabilidad
Integración de aptitudes esenciales (IES) = de 25
Modelado (MDL) = de 24
Total de matemáticas (PHM + IES) = de 60
Nota: No incluir MDL en la calicación sin
procesar total de matemáticas.
Número de
matemáticas
Respuesta
correcta
Correcta
(Marca 1)
Categorías
del reporte
1 E IES, MDL
2 J PHM-A
3 B IES
4 G IES
5 C PHM-A
6 F IES, MDL
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Número de
matemáticas
Respuesta
correcta
Correcta
(Marca 1)
Categorías
del reporte
7 B PHM-F, MDL
8 H
PHM-F, MDL
9 D
PHM-G
10 G
PHM-N, MDL
11 B
PHM-S, MDL
12 G
PHM-G, MDL
13 D
IES, MDL
14 J
IES, MDL
15 A PHM-A
16 K PHM-A
17 D PHM-G
18 J PHM-N
19 A PHM-G, MDL
20 F PHM-S
21 E IES
22 G PHM-G
23 E PHM-F
24 H IES
25 D IES
26 G IES, MDL
27 E IES
28 H IES, MDL
29 C IES, MDL
30 H PHM-S
31 B PHM-N, MDL
32 K IES
33 D IES, MDL
34 F PHM-G
35 E IES, MDL
36 J IES
37 C PHM-S, MDL
38 F PHM-S, MDL
39 D PHM-N
40 K PHM-G
41 A PHM-A
42 J PHM-F
43 D IES
Número de
matemáticas
Respuesta
correcta
Correcta
(Marca 1)
Categorías
del reporte
44 G PHM-A, MDL
45 E
PHM-A
46 F
IES, MDL
47 D
PHM-S, MDL
48 G
IES
49 D
PHM-F
50 K
PHM-F
51 D
IES, MDL
52 K IES
53 A PHM-F
54 G IES
55 B PHM-N
56 K PHM-A
57 D IES
58 K PHM-F
59 B PHM-G, MDL
60 F IES, MDL
Sección del examen 3, lectura
Clave de calicación para lectura (para el
formulario 2176CPRE)
Categorías del reporte de lectura
(Capturar calicaciones sin procesar/respuestas
correctas).
Ideas y detalles clave (KID) = de 23
Elaboración y estructura (CS) = de 12
Integración de conocimiento e ideas (IKI) = de 5
Total de lectura (KID + CS + IKI) = de 40
Número
de lectura
Respuesta
correcta
Correcta
(Marca 1)
Categorías
del reporte
1 D CS
2 F K I D
3 C CS
4 J CS
5 D IKI
6 J K I D
7 B K I D
8 H IKI
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Número
de lectura
Respuesta
correcta
Correcta
(Marca 1)
Categorías
del reporte
9 B IKI
10 F
IKI
11 D
CS
12 F
K I D
13 B
K I D
14 G
K I D
15 D
CS
16 G
K I D
17 C K I D
18 H K I D
19 B K I D
20 J CS
21 B CS
22 F K I D
23 C CS
24 J CS
25 A IKI
26 J K I D
27 B K I D
28 G K I D
29 C K I D
30 F CS
31 C CS
32 G K I D
33 A K I D
34 J K I D
35 C K I D
36 F K I D
37 D K I D
38 G CS
39 C K I D
40 G K I D
Sección del examen 4, ciencias
Clave de calicación para ciencias (para el
formulario 2176CPRE)
Categorías del reporte de ciencias
(Capturar calicaciones sin procesar/respuestas
correctas).
Interpretación de datos (IOD) = de 18
Investigación cientíca (SIN) = de 12
Evaluación de modelos, inferencias y resultados
experimentales (EMI) = de 10
Total de ciencias (IOD + SIN + EMI) = de 40
Número
de
ciencias
Respuesta
correcta
Correcta
(Marca 1)
Categorías
del reporte
1 D EMI
2 H EMI
3 B EMI
4 G EMI
5 B EMI
6 F EMI
7 C EMI
8 J S I N
9 C S I N
10 J IOD
11 B S I N
12 F IOD
13 B S I N
14 H S I N
15 B IOD
16 G IOD
17 A IOD
18 H IOD
19 D IOD
20 J IOD
21 A IOD
22 G IOD
23 C S I N
24 J IOD
25 B S I N
26 J S I N
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 69 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
Número
de
ciencias
Respuesta
correcta
Correcta
(Marca 1)
Categorías
del reporte
27 A EMI
28 F
IOD
29 B
IOD
30 G
EMI
31 C
IOD
32 J
IOD
33 B
IOD
34 G
IOD
35 D S I N
36 H S I N
37 C EMI
38 H S I N
39 B IOD
40 J S I N
Calicaciones a escala
Para ajustar las pequeñas diferencias entre las
diferentes formas del examen ACT, las calicaciones
sin procesar se convierten a calicaciones a escala.
Las calicaciones a escala aparecen en los reportes
enviados a tu escuela.
Cuando tus calicaciones sin procesar se convierten
en calicaciones a escala, es posible comparar tus
calicaciones con las de aquellos examinados que
tomaron formas de exámenes diferentes. Por ejemplo,
una calicación a escala de 26 en la sección del examen
de matemáticas tiene el mismo signicado para
cualquier forma del examen ACT.
Conversión de calicaciones sin
procesar a calicaciones a escala
Cada sección del examen ACT genera una calicación
a escala única entre 1 y 36. Utiliza la tabla de conversión
de calicaciones sin procesar a calicaciones a escala
para convertir tus calicaciones. Para cada sección del
examen:
1.
Localiza en la tabla de conversión tu calicación sin
procesar o el rango que la incluye.
2.
Ubica la celda en la columna calicación a escala
de la la que corresponde a esa calicación sin
procesar para identicar la calicación a escala de
ese examen.
3.
Al ir determinando tus calicaciones a escala,
anótalas en los espacios en blanco que se
encuentran abajo.
Calicaciones a escala de la sección del examen:
Inglés =
Matemáticas =
Lectura =
Ciencias =
Cómo calcular una calicación global
Un examen ACT genera una calicación global
única entre 1 y 36. Calcula la calicación global
promediando las cuatro calicaciones a escala.
Para hacer esto:
1. Suma tus cuatro calicaciones a escala.
Ingresa esta suma de calicaciones en el
espacio en blanco a continuación.
2. Divide la suma entre 4. Si el número resultante
termina en fracción, redondéalo al número
entero más cercano. (Redondea hacia abajo
cualquier fracción menor que un medio,
excepto promedios menores que uno;
redondea hacia arriba cualquier fracción que
sea un medio o más y/o menor que uno.)
3. Anota este número en el espacio en blanco a
continuación. Esta es tu calicación global.
Global de calicaciones a escala:
Suma de calicaciones =
Calicación global (suma ÷ 4) =
Nota: Si dejaste una sección del examen
completamente en blanco y no marcaste
ninguna respuesta, no indiques una calicación
a escala para esa sección y no calcules una
calicación global.
Para calcular tu calicación de redacción, utiliza
la rúbrica de calicación para el examen de
redacción ACT de la página 72.
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 70 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
Conversión de calicaciones sin procesar a calicaciones a escala (para el formulario 2176CPRE)
Calicación a
escala
Calicación sin
procesar
Examen 1: Inglés
Calicación sin procesar
Examen 2:
Matemáticas
Calicación sin
procesar
Examen 3: Lectura
Calicación sin
procesar
Examen 4: Ciencias
36 72–75 58–60 39–40 38–40
35 70–71 56–57 38 37
34 68–69 54–55 37 36
33 67 53 35–36 35
32 66 51–52 34 34
31 65 49–50 33
30 64 48 33
29 62–63 46–47 32 32
28 61 44–45 31 31
27 60 41–43 30
26 58–59 39–40 29 30
25 56–57 37–38 28 28–29
24 53–55 35–36 27 26–27
23 51–52 33–34 26 25
22 48–50 31–32 24–25 23–24
21 45–47 30 23 22
20 42–44 28–29 21–22 20–21
19 40–41 26–27 20 19
18 38–39 24–25 19 17–18
17 36–37 21–23 17–18 15–16
16 33–35 17–20 16 13–14
15 30–32 13–16 14–15 12
14 27–29 10–12 12–13 11
13 25–26 8–9 11 10
12 23–24 6–7 9–10 9
11 19–22 5 7–8 8
10 16–18 4 6 7
9 13–15 5 6
8 11–12 3 5
7 9–10 4 4
6 7–8 2 3 3
5 6
4 4–5 1 2 2
3 3 1
2 2 1
1 0–1 0 0 0
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 71 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
Calicación del examen
de redacción de práctica
Es difícil ser objetivo sobre el trabajo propio. Sin
embargo, te beneciará que leas críticamente
tu propia escritura, ya que al hacerlo te
desarrollarás como escritor y como lector.
También puede ser útil que le des tu ensayo de
práctica a otro lector: un compañero de clase,
uno de tus padres o un maestro. Para calicar
tu ensayo, tú y tu lector o lectores deben leer las
guías de calicación y los ensayos de ejemplo
disponibles en www.actstudent.org y luego
utilizar la rúbrica de calicación para el examen
de redacción ACT que aparece a continuación
para asignar a tu ensayo de práctica una
calicación de 1 (baja) a 6 (alta) en cada uno de
cuatro dominios de redacción (Ideas y análisis,
Desarrollo y sustentanción, Organización, Uso
del lenguaje).
Rúbrica de calicación
La rúbrica representa las normas que se
utilizarán para evaluar tu ensayo. Los lectores
utilizarán esta rúbrica para asignarle a tu
ensayo cuatro calicaciones, una por cada
dominio de redacción. Estas son las seis
posibles calicaciones de la rúbrica:
Calicación 6: Las respuestas demuestran
habilidad ecaz en la redacción de un ensayo
argumentativo.
Calicación 5: Las respuestas demuestran
habilidad bien desarrollada en la redacción de
un ensayo argumentativo.
Calicación 4: Las respuestas demuestran
habilidad adecuada en la redacción de un
ensayo argumentativo.
Calicación 3: Las respuestas demuestran
cierta habilidad en desarrollo en la redacción de
un ensayo argumentativo.
Calicación 2: Las respuestas demuestran
debilidad o falta de habilidad en la redacción de
un ensayo argumentativo.
Calicación 1: Las respuestas demuestran muy
poca o nula habilidad en la redacción de un
ensayo argumentativo.
Debido a que cada dominio recibe su propia
calicación, las cuatro calicaciones que
asignes no necesitan ser idénticas. Por ejemplo,
podrías observar que tu ensayo es mejor en
organización que en desarrollo de ideas. En
este caso, podrías determinar que tu ensayo
debe recibir una calicación más alta en
Organización que en Desarrollo y sustentación.
Cálculo de tu calicación de redacción
La sección de redacción del examen ACT
genera una calicación única entre 2 y 12. Sigue
estos pasos para calcular tu calicación de
redacción.
1. Determina qué puntuación (rango 1 a 6) en
cada uno de los cuatro dominios describe
mejor las características de tu redacción.
2. Multiplica la calicación de cada rúbrica por
2 para obtener una calicación para cada
dominio (rango 2 a 12).
3. Suma las cuatro calicaciones de
tus dominios. Ingresa esta suma de
calicaciones de los dominios en el espacio
en blanco a continuación (rango 8 a 48).
4. Divide la suma entre 4. Si el número
resultante termina en fracción, redondéalo
al número entero más cercano. (Redondea
hacia abajo cualquier fracción menor a la
mitad y hacia arriba cualquier fracción que
sea la mitad o más).
Rúbrica del examen de redacción y
calicaciones de dominios:
Ideas y análisis = x 2 =
Desarrollo y sustentanción = x 2 =
Organización = x 2 =
Uso del lenguaje = x 2 =
Suma de las calicaciones de los dominios =
Calicación de la materia de redacción
(suma ÷ 4) =
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 72 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
Rúbrica de calicación del examen de redacción del examen ACT
Dominio de ideas y análisis
Calicación
de la rúbrica
Normas de calicación de ideas y análisis
6
El escritor genera un argumento que interactúa críticamente con múltiples perspectivas
sobre el tema en cuestión. La tesis del argumento reeja matices y precisión en raciocinio y
propósito. El argumento establece y emplea un contexto perspicaz para el análisis del tema
y sus perspectivas. El análisis analiza implicaciones, complejidades y tensiones, y/o valores y
suposiciones subyacentes.
5
El escritor genera un argumento que interactúa productivamente con múltiples perspectivas
sobre el tema en cuestión. La tesis del argumento reeja precisión en raciocinio y propósito.
El argumento establece y emplea un contexto bien pensado para el análisis del tema y
sus perspectivas. El análisis aborda implicaciones, complejidades y tensiones, y/o valores y
suposiciones subyacentes.
4
El escritor genera un argumento que interactúa con múltiples perspectivas sobre el tema
en cuestión. La tesis del argumento reeja claridad en raciocinio y propósito. El argumento
establece y emplea un contexto relevante para el análisis del tema y sus perspectivas. El
análisis reconoce implicaciones, complejidades y tensiones, y/o valores y suposiciones
subyacentes.
3
El escritor genera un argumento que responde a múltiples perspectivas sobre el tema en
cuestión. La tesis del argumento reeja cierta claridad en raciocinio y propósito. El argumento
establece un contexto limitado o tangencial para el análisis del tema y sus perspectivas. El
análisis es simplista o algo confuso.
2
El escritor genera un argumento que responde débilmente a múltiples perspectivas sobre el
tema en cuestión. La tesis del argumento, si es evidente, reeja poca claridad en raciocinio y
propósito. Los intentos de análisis son incompletos, en su mayor parte irrelevantes o consisten
principalmente de una reformulación del tema y sus perspectivas.
1
El escritor no logra generar un argumento que responda de manera inteligible a la tarea.
Las intenciones del escritor son difíciles de discernir. Los intentos de análisis son confusos o
irrelevantes.
Dominio de desarrollo y sustentanción
Calicación
de la rúbrica
Normas de calicación de desarrollo y sustentanción
6
El desarrollo de las ideas y la sustentación de las aseveraciones profundizan la perspicacia
y amplían el contexto. Una línea integrada de razonamiento e ilustración hábil transmiten
de manera ecaz la importancia del argumento. Las calicaciones y las complicaciones
enriquecen y refuerzan las ideas y el análisis de las mismas.
5
El desarrollo de las ideas y la sustentación de las aseveraciones profundizan el entendimiento.
Una línea en su mayor parte integrada de razonamiento e ilustración bien dirigida transmiten
de manera ecaz la importancia del argumento. Las calicaciones y las complicaciones
enriquecen las ideas y el análisis de las mismas.
4
El desarrollo de las ideas y la sustentación de las aseveraciones aclaran el signicado y el
propósito. Las líneas de razonamiento claro e ilustración transmiten de manera adecuada la
importancia del argumento. Las calicaciones y las complicaciones extienden las ideas y el
análisis de las mismas.
3
El desarrollo de ideas y la sustentación de aseveraciones son relevantes en su mayor parte
pero son demasiado generales o simplistas. El razonamiento y la ilustración aclaran en gran
medida el argumento, pero pueden ser algo repetitivos o imprecisos.
2
El desarrollo de las ideas y la sustentación de las aseveraciones son débiles, confusos o
desarticulados. El razonamiento y la ilustración son inadecuados, ilógicos o circulares y no
aclaran plenamente el argumento.
1
Las ideas no están desarrolladas y las aseveraciones no están sustentadas. El razonamiento y
la ilustración son confusos, incoherentes o inexistentes en gran medida.
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 73 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
Dominio de organización
Calicación
de la rúbrica
Normas de calicación de organización
6
La respuesta muestra una estrategia organizacional hábil. La respuesta está unicada por
una idea o propósito principal, y una progresión lógica de las ideas aumenta la ecacia del
argumento del escritor. Las transiciones entre los párrafos y dentro de los mismos fortalecen
las relaciones entre las ideas.
5
La respuesta muestra una estrategia organizacional productiva. En su mayor parte, la
respuesta está unicada por una idea o propósito principal, y un secuenciamiento lógico de
las ideas aumenta la ecacia del argumento. Las transiciones entre los párrafos y dentro de
los mismos aclaran consistentemente las relaciones entre las ideas.
4
La respuesta muestra una estrategia organizacional clara. La forma general de la respuesta
reeja una idea o propósito principal emergente. Las ideas están lógicamente agrupadas
y secuenciadas. Las transiciones entre los párrafos y dentro de los mismos aclaran
consistentemente las relaciones entre las ideas.
3
La respuesta muestra una estructura organizacional básica. La respuesta en su mayor parte
es coherente y la mayoría de las ideas están lógicamente agrupadas. Las transiciones entre los
párrafos y dentro de los mismos en ocasiones aclaran las relaciones entre las ideas.
2
La respuesta muestra una estructura organizacional rudimentaria. El agrupamiento de ideas
es inconsistente y a menudo no es claro. Las transiciones entre los párrafos y dentro de los
mismos son confusas o están decientemente formadas.
1
La respuesta no muestra una estructura organizacional. Hay poca agrupación de ideas.
Cuando están presentes, los dispositivos de transición no logran conectar las ideas.
Dominio de uso del lenguaje
Calicación
de la rúbrica
Normas de calicación de uso del lenguaje
6
El uso del lenguaje realza el argumento. La elección de vocabulario es hábil y precisa. Las
estructuras sintácticas son consistentemente variadas y claras. Las elecciones estilísticas y de
registro, incluyendo voz y tono, son estratégicas y ecaces. Aunque pueden existir algunos
errores menores de gramática, uso y mecánica, estos no obstaculizan la comprensión.
5
El uso del lenguaje apoya el argumento. La elección de vocabulario es precisa. Las estructuras
sintácticas son claras y presentan variación frecuente. Las elecciones estilísticas y de registro,
incluyendo voz y tono, son dirigidas y productivas. Aunque pueden existir errores menores de
gramática, uso y mecánica, estos no obstaculizan la comprensión.
4
El uso del lenguaje transmite el argumento con claridad. La elección de vocabulario es
adecuada y en ocasiones precisa. Las estructuras sintácticas son claras y demuestran cierta
variedad. Las elecciones estilísticas y de registro, incluyendo voz y tono, son apropiadas para el
propósito retórico. Aunque existen errores de gramática, uso y mecánica, en raras ocasiones
obstaculizan la comprensión.
3
El uso del lenguaje es básico y únicamente claro hasta cierto punto. La elección de
vocabulario es general y ocasionalmente imprecisa. Las estructuras sintácticas son
usualmente claras pero muestran poca variedad. Las elecciones estilísticas y de registro,
incluyendo voz y tono, no son siempre apropiadas para el propósito retórico. Pueden existir
errores de gramática, uso y mecánica que causan distracción, pero generalmente no
obstaculizan la comprensión.
2
El uso del lenguaje es inconsistente y a menudo no es claro. La elección de vocabulario es
rudimentaria y frecuentemente imprecisa. Las estructuras sintácticas en ocasiones no son
claras. Las elecciones estilísticas y de registro, incluyendo voz y tono, son inconsistentes y
no son siempre apropiadas para el propósito retórico. Existen errores de gramática, uso y
mecánica que en ocasiones obstaculizan la comprensión.
1
El uso del lenguaje no logra demostrar habilidad para responder a la tarea. La elección de
vocabulario es imprecisa y a menudo difícil de comprender. Las estructuras sintácticas a
menudo no son claras. Las elecciones estilísticas y de registro son difíciles de identicar.
Existen abundantes errores de gramática, uso y mecánica que a menudo obstaculizan la
comprensión.
©2024 por ACT Education Corp. Todos los derechos reservados. Página 74 de 75 QU00002SPAN.CJ15296
Pximos pasos
La calicación de tu examen de práctica es
una estimación de la calicación que recibirías
durante una administración real del examen
ACT. Reexionar sobre tu experiencia de
práctica puede ser útil a medida que continúas
preparándote para el día del examen.
Considera lo siguiente al revisar tus
calicaciones como parte de tu desempeño
general en el examen:
lRitmo: ¿Te faltó tiempo? Vuelve a leer
la información que encontrarás en
Preparación para el examen ACT
®
sobre
cómo administrar tu tiempo. Tal vez
necesites ajustar cómo usas tu tiempo para
contestar las preguntas.
lInstrucciones: ¿Pasaste demasiado tiempo
tratando de entender las instrucciones para
las secciones del examen? Es importante
que las entiendas antes del día del examen.
lErrores: Revisa las preguntas que no
contestaste correctamente. ¿Seleccionaste
una respuesta que era una respuesta
incompleta o que no contestó directamente
la pregunta que se hacía? Trata de
determinar qué se te pasó por alto cuando
contestaste las preguntas.
lTipos: ¿Te confundió un tipo particular de
pregunta? Al revisar tus respuestas, revisa
si un tipo particular de pregunta fue más
difícil para ti.
A C T está comprometido a representar la diversidad de la sociedad en todos sus aspectos, lo cual
incluye raza, grupo étnico y género. Las preguntas, pasajes y las instrucciones para el examen
de redacción se eligen para reflejar una variedad de culturas y están escritas de modo que no
representen una desventaja para ningún grupo particular de examinados. A C T usa revisiones
extensas y procedimientos de estadística para asegurar la equidad de los materiales del examen.
A C T realiza investigaciones y actualiza los exámenes periódicamente para proporcionar contenido de
examen que refleje la instrucción del salón de clases y continúa siendo un pronosticador relevante
de la preparación para la universidad y una carrera profesional. Puede haber diferencias sutiles entre
el examen A C T de práctica en este cuadernillo y el examen que los estudiantes tomen el día del
examen.
A C T respalda el Código de Prácticas Justas de Aplicación de Exámenes en Educación y el Código de
Responsabilidades Profesionales en Medición Educativa, que guían el comportamiento de quienes
participan en los exámenes educativos. A C T tiene el compromiso de asegurar que cada uno de sus
programas de exámenes cumpla con las pautas de cada código. Se pueden encontrar copias de
estos Códigos a través de las siguientes organizaciones:
Código de Prácticas Justas de Aplicación de Exámenes en Educación: Asociación Estadounidense
de Psicología (https://www.apa.org/science/programs/testing/fair-testing.pdf)
Código de Responsabilidades Profesionales en Medición Educativa: Consejo Nacional de Medición
Educativa (https://www.ncme.org/resources-publications/professional-learning/library)
NOTA: Este cuadernillo está protegido por las leyes federales de derechos de autor, que
prohíben la reproducción de las preguntas del examen sin la previa autorización explícita por
escrito de A C T, Inc. Ninguna porción de este cuadernillo puede copiarse o distribuirse sin el
permiso por escrito de A C T.