ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2021
Page 1
RECENT TREND
QUESTIONS:
1. All true about midazolam except-
a. Antero-grade amnesia
b. Retrograde amnesia
c. Tachyphylaxis seen in patients receiving
large doses
d. Less Cardiovascular risk in comparison to
propofol
Ans: b.Retrograde amnesia
2. Lithium should be stopped before how many
days before surgery
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Ans:a.1
3. Signs of successful Stellate block A/E -
a. Nasal stuffiness
b. Guttman sign
c. Miosis
d. Bradycardia
Ans:d. Bradycardia
4. Most common rib Fracture in CPR are
a. 2-4
b. 4-6
c. 3-5
d. 5-7
Ans:b.4-6
5 .Ventilation mode in head injury is
a. SIMV
b. AMV
c. CMV
d. CPAP
Ans:c.CMV
6. Stage of surgical anaesthesia during ether
administration is -
a. Loss of consciousness
b. Failure of circulation
c. Regular respiration to cessation of
breathing
d. Loss of consciousness to beginning of
regular respiration
Ans:c. Regular respiration to cessation of
breathing
7. Drug not affecting CSF synthesis & absorption
-
a. Ketamine
b. Thiopentone sodium
c. Nitric oxide
d. Halothane
Ans:c.Nitric oxide
8.21 years old spontaneous breathing patient
undergoing incision and drainage under GA,
which is the breathing circuit of choice?
a. Mapleson A
b. Mapleson B
c. Mapleson E
d. Mapelson F
Ans: a. Mapleson A
9. An eye surgery was performed using propofol
as intravenous agent and succinylcholine as
muscle relaxant. Recovery from anesthesia was
uneventful. However after 8 hours of surgery,
patient complains of pain in the muscles. Which
of the following is the likely reason for this
condition?
a. Propofol
b. Due to surgery
c. Early mobilization
d. Succinylcholine
Ans: d. Succinylcholine
10. Bethune and Brechner discovered:
a. Precordial doppler
b. Transesophageal echocardiography
c. Plethysmography
d.
End tidal CO
2
monitor
Ans: d. End tidal CO2 monitor
11. Which of the following is similar to albumin
with molecular weight of 30,000 and not
antigenic?
a. Dextran
b. Hydroxyethyl starch (HES)
c. Polygeline
d. Polyvinylpyrrolidone
Ans: c. Polygeline
12. Which of the following drug is used in day
care surgery ?
a. Ketamine
b. Propofol
c. Diazepam
d. Sodium thiopental
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2021
Page 2
Ans: b. Propofol
1. Which is the critical temperature of N20 -
a. 118°C
b. 88°C
c. 26°C
d. 36.5°C
2. Anatomic dead space is increase by all except -
a. Atropine
b. Halothane
c. Massive pleural effusion
d. Inspiration
3. Dead space is increased by all excepta)
a. Anticholinergic drugs
b. Standing
c. Hyperextension of Neck
d. Endotracheal intubation
4. The physiological dead space is decreased by -
a. Upright position
b. Positive pressure ventilation
c. Neck flexion
d. Emphysema
5. The main controlling agent for respiratory
drive is which of the following -
a. C02
b. Oxygen
c. NO
d. HB03
ANSWER:
1. D
2. C
3. D
4. C
5. A
MCQ ANESTHESIA
1.A patient is on regular medications for co-
existing medical problems. Which of the
following drugs may be stopped safely with
minimal risk of adverse effects before an
abdominal surgery:
a) Statins
b) Beta Blockers
c) ACE inhibitors /ACE Receptor Blockers
d) Steroids
2. all of the following statements about the effect
of smoking in a chronic smoker scheduled for
elective surgery are true, except:
a) Increased nicotine level may increase
sympathetic tone
b) Increased carboxyhaemoglobin levels may
shift oxyhaenoglobin curve to right
c) Rediced pulmonary capacity may result
from poor ciliary function and reduced
surfactant
d) Increased risk of infection
3. which of the following anesthetic drugs is
contraindicated in chronic Renal Failure;
a) Morphine
b) Fentanyl
c) Pethidine
d) Atracurium
4. Which of the following statements about Total
intra venous Anesthesia (TIV A) is true:
a) Causes more renal toxicity
b) Reduces Cerebral Metabolic Rate
c) Risk of malignant Hyperthermia is high
d) Inhibits Hypoxic pulmonary
Vasoconstriction
5. Thiopentone has cerbroprotective effect
because of:
a) Decreased cerebal metabolism
b) Reduction of vasospasm
c) Calcium channel blockage
d) Free radical removal
6. Which of the following muscle relaxants causes
maximal pain on injection;
a) Succinyl choline
b) Vecuronium
c) Rocuroinum
d) Cistracurium
7. Individual intraoperative awareness is
evaluated by;
a) Pulse oximetry
b) Colour Doppler
c) Bispectral imaging
d)
End tidal CO
2
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2021
Page 3
8. Which of the following responses is least
affected by Ansthesia
a) Brainstem Aauditory Evoked response
(BAER)
b) Visual Evoked Response (VER)
c) Somatosensory Evoked potential (SSEP)
d) Electroencephalogram (EEG)
9. Which of the following statements about
Anesthetic Machine is true:
a) Temperature of Desflurance Vaporizer
chamber is 39
0
C
b) Flow – meters (Rotameters0 are
Interchangeable
c) Oxygen sensors are placed on the
expitatory limb of the anesthesia circuit
d) All of the above
Answer Key
1) C
2) B
3) C
4) B
5) A
6) C
7) C
8) A
9) A
1) All of the following are example of definite
airways except:
a) Nasotracheal tube
b) Orotracheal tube
c) Laryngeal mask airway
d) Cricothyroidotomy
2) Which of the following anaesthetic agentsis
contraindicated in patients with
hypertension?
a) Ketamine
b) Propofol
c) Etomidate
d) Diazepam
3) Which of the following anaesthetic agentsis
contraindicated in patients with with
d) Regional anesthesia
5) Which anaesthetic modality is to be avoided
in sickle cell disease
a) General anaesthesia
b) Brachial plexus block
c) I.V.Regional Anaesthesia
d) Spinal
6) Spinal anesthesia is given at which of the
following levels:
a) L1-2
b) L2-4
c) Midline of thorax
d) Below L5 (caudal)
7) An anesthesia resident was giving spinal
anesthesia when the patient had sudden
aphonia and loss of consciousness. What
could have happened?
a) Total spinal
b) Partial spinal
c) Vaso vagal attack
d) Intra vascular injection
8) A 40 year old female underwent surgery.
Postperatively she told the anesthetist that
she was aware of preoperative events.
Individual intraoperative awareness is
evaluated by:
a) Pulse oximetry
b) Colour Doppler
c) Bispectral imaging
d)
End tidal CO
2
9)
Rise in end tidal CO
2
during thyroid surgery
can be due to all except:
a) Anaphylaxis
b) Malignant hyperthermia
c) Thyroid storm
d) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
10) Fire breaks out during laser vocal cord
surgery. What is not to be done?
a) Pouring sterile water
b) Removing endotracheal tube
c) 100% oxygen after discontinuing anesthetic
gases
d) Treatment with steroid and antibiotics
Answer Key
hypertension?
1. C
a) Isoflurane
2. A
b) Sevoflurane
3. B
c) Methoxyflurane
4. A
d) Halothane
5. C
4) Ansthetic agent
with
vasoconstrictor
is
6. B
contraindicated in?
7. C
a) Finger block
8. C
b) Spinal block
9. A
c) Epidural block
10. C
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2021
Page 4
1) A patient with Bilirubin value of 8mg/dl and
serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dl is planned for
surgery. What is the muscle relaxant of
choice in this patient
a) Vecuronium
b) Pancuronium
c) Atracurium
d) Rocuronium
2) All of the following statements about
neuromuscular blockage produced by
succinylcholine are true, Except:
a) No fade on train of four stimulation
b) Fade on tetanic stimulation
c) No post tetanic facilitation
d) Train of four ratio>0.4
3) A 25 year old overweight female was given
Fentanyl pancuronium anesthesia for
surgery. After surgery and extubation she
was observed to have limited movement of
the upper body and chest wall in the recovery
room. She was conscious and alert but
voluntary respiratory effort was limited. Her
blood pressure and heart rate were normal.
The likely diagnosis is:
a) Incomplete reversal of pancuronium
b) Pulmonary embolism
c) Fentanyl induced chest wall rigidity
d) Respiratory depression
4) A 27 year old female was brought to
emergency department for acute abdominal
pain following which she was shifted to the
operation theatre for laparotomy . A speedy
intubation was performed but after the
intubation , breath sounds were observed to
be decreased on the left side and a high end
tidal CO2 was recorded. The likely diagnosis
is:
a) Endotracheal tube blockage
b) Bronchospasm
c) Esophageal intubation
d) Endobronchial intubation
Answer Key
1. C
2. B
1) Sodium bicarbonate when given with local
anaesthetics has which of the following
effect?
a) Increases speed and quality of anaestheisa
b) Decreases diffusion of the anaesthetic drug
c) Causes rapid elimination of the local
anaesthetic
d) Decreases speed and quality of anaesthesia
2) The ansthetic drug injected for paravertebral
block is least likely to diffuse to:
a) Epiduaral space
b) Subarachnoid space
c) Intercostals space
d) Superior and inferior paravertebral spaces
3) Which of the following is not a sign of
successful stellate ganglion block?
a) Nasal stuffiness
b) Guttman sign
c) Horner’s syndrome
d) Bradycardia
Answer Key
1. A
2. B
3. D
1) Train of four fade is a charachteristic feature
of:
a) Depolarizing block
b) Non depolarizing block
c) Both depolarizing and non-depolarizing block
d) Maligment hyperthermia
2) Which of the following statements about
propofol is not true?
a) It is contraindicated in porphyria
b) It ddoes not trigger malignant hyperthermia
c) Commercial preparations contains egg
d) It is a suitable agent for day care surgery
3) Which of the following statements about
inhalation anesthetic agents wrong?
a) Sevoflurance is more potent than isoflurance
b) Sevoflurance is less cardiodepressant than
isoflurance
c) Desflurance has lower blood –gas partition
coefficient than sevoflurance
d) Sevoflurance has a higher MAC than
A
isoflurance
D
Answer Key
1. B
2. A
3. A
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2021
Page 5
1) which one of the following is not an amide
linked local anaesthetic:
a) lignocaine
b) procaine
c) bupivacaine
d) dibucaine
2) A young boy undergoes eye surgery under
day case anesthesia with succinyl choline and
propofol and after 8 hours he starts walking
and develops muscle pain. What is the likely
cause?
a) Early mobilization
b) Due to the effects of eye surgery
c) Succinyl choline
d) Propofol
3) An elderly male on ventricular has received
Atracurium infusion for 3 days. He now
develops epileptic fits. Probable cause for his
epilepsy is:
a) Allergy to drug
b) Accumulation of Atracurium
c) Accumulation of Laudanosine
d) Ventilator
4) Which of the following opioids is not given
intrathecally
a) Remifentanil
b) Morphine
c) Sufentanil
d) Fentanyl
5) Centrineuaxial (spinal and epidural)
anaesthesia is not contraindicated in-
a) Platelets <80,000
b) Patient on aspirin
c) Patient on oral anticoagulants
d) Raised intracranial pressure
6) Which of the following is not used in
controlling heart rate introperatively.
a) Propanolol /Metoprolol
b) Verapamil
c) Esmolol
d) Procainamide
7) A non ventilated preterm baby in incubator is
under observation. Which is the best way to
monitor the baby’s breathing and detect
apnea?
a) Capnography
b) Impedence pulmonometry
c) Chest movement monitoring
d)
Infrared End Tidal CO
2
mesurement
Answer Key
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. A
7. B
1) A patient is on regular medications for co-
existing medical problems. Which of the
following drugs may be stopped safely with
minimal risk of adverse effects before an
abdominal surgery:
a) Statins
b) Beta Blockers
c) ACE inhibitors /ACE Receptor Blockers
d) Steroids
2) all of the following statements about the effect
of smoking in a chronic smoker scheduled for
elective surgery are true, except:
a) increased nicotine level may increase
sympathetic tone
b) increased carboxyhaemoglobin levels may
shift oxyhaenoglobin curve to Right
c) rediced pulmonary capacity may result from
poor ciliary function and reduced surfactant
d) increased risk of infection
3) which of the following anesthetic drugs is
contraindicated in chronic Renal Failure;
a) morphine
b) Fentanyl
c) Pethidine
d) Atracurium
4) Which of the following statements about
Total intra venous Anesthesia (TIV A) is
true:
a) Causes more renal toxicity
b) Reduces Cerebral Metabolic Rate
c) Risk of malignant Hyperthermia is high
d) Inhibits Hypoxic pulmonary Vasoconstriction
5) Thiopentone has cerbroprotective effect
because of:
a) Decreased cerebal metabolism
b) Reduction of vasospasm
c) Calcium channel blockage
d) Free radical removal
6) Which of the following muscle relaxants
causes maximal pain on injection;
a) Succinyl choline
b) Vecuronium
c) Rocuroinum
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2021
Page 6
d) Cistracurium
7) Individual intraoperative awareness is
evaluated by;
a) Pulse oximetry
b) Colour Doppler
c) Bispectral imaging
d)
End tidal CO
2
8) Which of the following responses is least
affected by Ansthesia
a) Brainstem Aauditory Evoked response
(BAER)
b) Visual Evoked Response (VER)
c) Somatosensory Evoked potential (SSEP)
d) Electroencephalogram (EEG)
9) Which of the following statements about
Anesthetic Machine is true:
a) Temperature of Desflurance Vaporizer
chamber is 39
0
C
b) Flow – meters (Rotameters0 are
Interchangeable
c) Oxygen sensors are placed on the expitatory
limb of the anesthesia circuit
d) All of the above
Answer Key
1. C
2. B
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. C
7. C
8. A
9. A
1) All of the following are example of definite
airways except:
a) Nasotracheal tube
b) Orotracheal tube
c) Laryngeal mask airway
d) Cricothyroidotomy
2) Which of the following anaesthetic agentsis
contraindicated in patients with
hypertension?
a) Ketamine
b) Propofol
c) Etomidate
d) Diazepam
3) Which of the following anaesthetic agentsis
contraindicated in patients with with
hypertension?
a) Isoflurane
b) Sevoflurane
c) Methoxyflurane
d) Halothane
4) Ansthetic agent with vasoconstrictor is
contraindicated in?
a) Finger block
b) Spinal block
c) Epidural block
d) Regional anesthesia
5) Which anaesthetic modality is to be avoided
in sickle cell disease
a) General anaesthesia
b) Brachial plexus block
c) I.V.Regional Anaesthesia
d) Spinal
6) Spinal anesthesia is given at which of the
following levels:
a) L1-2
b) L2-4
c) Midline of thorax
d) Below L5 (caudal)
7) An anesthesia resident was giving spinal
anesthesia when the patient had sudden
aphonia and loss of consciousness. What
could have happened?
a) Total spinal
b) Partial spinal
c) Vaso vagal attack
d) Intra vascular injection
8) A 40 year old female underwent surgery.
Postperatively she told the anesthetist that
she was aware of preoperative events.
Individual intraoperative awareness is
evaluated by:
a) Pulse oximetry
b) Colour Doppler
c) Bispectral imaging
d)
End tidal CO
2
9)
Rise in end tidal CO
2
during thyroid surgery
can be due to all except:
a) Anaphylaxis
b) Malignant hyperthermia
c) Thyroid storm
d) Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
10) Fire breaks out during laser vocal cord
surgery. What is not to be done?
a) Pouring sterile water
b) Removing endotracheal tube
c) 100% oxygen after discontinuing anesthetic
gases
d) Treatment with steroid and antibiotics
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2021
Page 7
Answer Key
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. B
7. C
8. C
9. A
10. C
1) A patient with Bilirubin value of 8mg/dl and
serum creatinine of 1.9 mg/dl is planned for
surgery. What is the muscle relaxant of
choice in this patient
a) Vecuronium
b) Pancuronium
c) Atracurium
d) Rocuronium
2) All of the following statements about
neuromuscular blockage produced by
succinylcholine are true, Except:
a) No fade on train of four stimulation
b) Fade on tetanic stimulation
c) No post tetanic facilitation
d) Train of four ratio>0.4
3) A 25 year old overweight female was given
Fentanyl pancuronium anesthesia for
surgery. After surgery and extubation she
was observed to have limited movement of
the upper body and chest wall in the recovery
room. She was conscious and alert but
voluntary respiratory effort was limited. Her
blood pressure and heart rate were normal.
The likely diagnosis is:
a) Incomplete reversal of pancuronium
b) Pulmonary embolism
c) Fentanyl induced chest wall rigidity
d) Respiratory depression
4) A 27 year old female was brought to
emergency department for acute abdominal
pain following which she was shifted to the
operation theatre for laparotomy . A speedy
intubation was performed but after the
intubation , breath sounds were observed to
be decreased on the left side and a high end
tidal CO2 was recorded. The likely diagnosis
is:
a) Endotracheal tube blockage
b) Bronchospasm
c) Esophageal intubation
d) Endobronchial intubation
Answer Key
1. C
2. B
3. A
4. D
1) Sodium bicarbonate when given with local
anaesthetics has which of the following
effect?
a) Increases speed and quality of anaestheisa
b) Decreases diffusion of the anaesthetic drug
c) Causes rapid elimination of the local
anaesthetic
d) Decreases speed and quality of anaesthesia
2) The ansthetic drug injected for paravertebral
block is least likely to diffuse to:
a) Epiduaral space
b) Subarachnoid space
c) Intercostals space
d) Superior and inferior paravertebral spaces
3) Which of the following is not a sign of
successful stellate ganglion block?
a) Nasal stuffiness
b) Guttman sign
c) Horner’s syndrome
d) Bradycardia
Answer Key
1. A
2. B
3. D
1) Train of four fade is a charachteristic feature
of:
a) Depolarizing block
b) Non depolarizing block
c) Both depolarizing and non-depolarizing block
d) Maligment hyperthermia
2) Which of the following statements about
propofol is not true?
a) It is contraindicated in porphyria
b) It ddoes not trigger malignant hyperthermia
c) Commercial preparations contains egg
d) It is a suitable agent for day care surgery
3) Which of the following statements about
inhalation anesthetic agents wrong?
a) Sevoflurance is more potent than isoflurance
b) Sevoflurance is less cardiodepressant than
isoflurance
c) Desflurance has lower blood –gas partition
coefficient than sevoflurance
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2021
Page 8
d) Sevoflurance has a higher MAC than
isoflurance
Answer Key
1. B
2. A
3. A
1) which one of the following is not an amide
linked local anaesthetic:
a) lignocaine
b) procaine
c) bupivacaine
d) dibucaine
2) A young boy undergoes eye surgery under
day case anesthesia with succinyl choline and
propofol and after 8 hours he starts walking
and develops muscle pain. What is the likely
cause?
a) Early mobilization
b) Due to the effects of eye surgery
c) Succinyl choline
d) Propofol
3) An elderly male on ventricular has received
Atracurium infusion for 3 days. He now
develops epileptic fits. Probable cause for his
epilepsy is:
a) Allergy to drug
b) Accumulation of Atracurium
c) Accumulation of Laudanosine
d) Ventilator
4) Which of the following opioids is not given
intrathecally
a) Remifentanil
b) Morphine
c) Sufentanil
d) Fentanyl
5) Centrineuaxial (spinal and epidural)
anaesthesia is not contraindicated in-
a) Platelets <80,000
b) Patient on aspirin
c) Patient on oral anticoagulants
d) Raised intracranial pressure
6) Which of the following is not used in
controlling heart rate introperatively.
a) Propanolol /Metoprolol
b) Verapamil
c) Esmolol
d) Procainamide
7) A non ventilated preterm baby in incubator is
under observation. Which is the best way to
monitor the baby’s breathing and detect
apnea?
a) Capnography
b) Impedence pulmonometry
c) Chest movement monitoring
d)
Infrared End Tidal CO
2
mesurement
Answer Key
1. B
2. C
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. A
7. B
1) Infant circuit for anaesthesia-
a) Bains circuit
b) Magill circuit
c) Ayres t piece
d) Water’s circuit
2) True about ketamine-
a) Bronchodilator
b) Depressed airway reflexes
c) Causes hypotension
d) Decreases ICT
3) DISS is used for-
a) Correct application of cylinder to
anaesthesia machine
b) To provide analgesia
c) To moniter BP
d) To moniter CVP
Answer Key
1. C
2. A
3. A
1) Which can replace N
2
O as O
2
carrier
a) Argon
b) Xenon
c) Helium
d) None
2)
Succinylocholine is used with caution in all
except:
a) Myasthenia gravis
b) Burns
c) Crush injury
d) Tachycardia
3) Which is the critical temperature of N
2
O-
a) -118
0
C
b) -88
0
C
c) -26
0
C
d) -36.5
0
C
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2021
Page 9
3. A
Answer Key
1. C
2. D
3. D
1) Drug used to prolong action of LA in
hypertensive pts-
a) Clonidine
b) Felypressin
c) Dexmeditomidate
d) Noradrenalin
2) Addition of epinephrine to lignocaine-
a) Increases distribution of LA
b) Decreases absorption of LA
c) Decreases duration of LA
d) Increases metabolism of LA
3) Most reliable indicator to prevent
oesophageal intubation-
a) Oxygen saturation on pulse oximeter
b)
Measurement of CO
2
in exhaled air
(Etco2)
c) Direct visualization of passing tube beneath
vocal cords
d) Ausculatio over chest
Answer Key
1. B
2. B
3. B
1) Dept of anaesthesia can be best assessed by-
a) Pulse oximeter
b)
End- tidal pCO
2
c) Acid blood gas analysis
d) Bispectral index
2) Local anaesthetic with maximum ionized
form at physiological pH-
a) Lignocaine
b) Etidocaine
c) Bupivacaine
d) Chloroprocaine
3) Agent with sortest acting period
a) Procaine
b) Lignocaine
c) Bupivacaine
d) Dibucaine
Answer Key
1. D
2. D
1) Cocaine was first used as local anaesthetic by-
a) Carl kollar
b) Holmer wells
c) Morton
d) None
2)
True about N
2
O-
a) Good muscle relaxant
b) Low potency and good analgesia
c) High potency and poor analgesia
d) None
3) Inducing agent of choice in asthma-
a) Thiopentone
b) Methhexitone
c) Ketamine
d) Propofol
Answer key
1. A
2. B
3. C
1) Agent causing malignant hyperthermia-
a) Succinyl choline
b) Dantrolene
c) Gallamine
d) Ketamine
2)
True about N
2
O
a) Good muscle relaxant
b) Low potency and good analgesia
c) High potency and poor analgesia
d) None
3) Dept of anaesthesia can be best assessed by-
a) Pulse oximeter
b)
End –tidal pCO
2
c) Acid blood gas analysis
d) Bispectral index
Answer key
1. A
2. B
3. D
1) In newborn, chest compression should be
started if heart rate is:
a) <120/min.
b) <100/min
c) <80/min
d) <60/min
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2021
Page 10
2) Which of the following skeletal muscle
relaxants undergo Hoffman’s elimination?
a) Atracurium
b) Succinylcholine
c) Mivacurium
d) Vecuronium
3) Which anaesthetic agent is neither
metabolized by liver nor by kidney-
a) Atracurium
b) Vecuronium
c) Pancuronium
d) Rocuronium
Answer Key
1. D
2. A
3. A
NBE
1) Which cant be given by Epidural anaesthesia-
a) Morphine
b) Remifentanil
c) Alfentanil
d) Fentanyl
2) Which of the following drugs is
contraindicated in a patient with raised
intracranial pressure?
a) Thiopentone
b) Propofol
c) Midazolam
d) Ketamine
3) Ayre’s T-piece is which type of circuit-
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type E
d) Type D
Answer Key
1. B
2. D
3. C
1) Which does not cause malignant
hyperthermia-
a) Isoflurance
b) Desflurane
c)
N
2
O
d) Enflurane
2) Muscle relaxant used in renal failure-
a) Ketamine
b) Atracurium
c) Pancuronium
d) Fentanyl
3)
Pin code index N
2
O is-
a) 1,6
b) 2,5
c) 2,6
d) 3,5
1) Local anaesthesia acts by-
a) Na
+
channel inhibition
b) Ca
++
channel inhibition
c) Mg
++
channel inhibition
d) K
+
channel inhibition
2) Which of the following drugs produces
dissociative anaesthesia-
a) Ketamine
b) Propofol
c) Thiopentone
d) Enflurane
3)
True about N
2
O
a) Good muscle relaxant
b) Low potency and good analgesia
c) High potency and poor analgesia
d) None
Answer Key
1. A
2. A
3. B
1) Dibucain number refers to-
a) Ach cholinesterase activity derangement
b) Potency of muscle relaxants
c) Potency of general anaesthetics
d) None
2)
True about N
2
O
a) Good muscle relaxant
b) Low potency and good analgesia
c) High potency and poor analgesia
d) None
3) Inducing agent of choice in DIC-
a) Thiopentone
b) Ketamine
c) Methohexitone
d) Propofol
Answer Key
1. A
2. B
3. B
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2021
Page 11
1) Levels of ether anesthesia were demonstrated
by whom-
a) Morton
b) Guedel
c) Thompson
d) None
2) Which of the following is a sympathomimetic-
a) Propofol
b) Etomidate
c) Ketamine
d)
N
2
O
3) MAC stands for-
a) Minimum alveolar concentration
b) Minimal analgesic concentration
c) Minimal anaesthetic concentration
d) Maximum alveolar concentration
Answer key
1. B
2. C
3. A
1) All are stages of anaesthesia except-
a) Analgesia
b) Allodynia
c) Delirium
d) Surgical anesthesia
2) Fast induction and recovery is seen in-
a) Methoxyflurane
b) Ether
c) Halothane
d)
N
2
o
3)
Pin code index N
2
O is-
a) 1,6
b) 2,5
c) 2,6
d) 3,5
Answer Key
1. B
2. D
3. D
1) All are true about halothane except-
a) Tachycardia
b) Hepatitis
c) Bronchodilatation
d) Uterine relaxation
2) Contraindicated in head injury-
a) Halothane
b) Ketamine
c)
N
2
O
d) Propofol
3)
Ratio of O
2
:N
2
O in Entonox is-
a) 50:50
b) 60:40
c) 40:60
d) 25:75
Answer Key
1. A
2. B
3. A
1) EMLA constituent is-
a) Lidocaine +Cocaine
b) Lidocaine +Prilocaine
c) Lidocaine+ Bupivacaine
d) Bupivacaine + Prilocaine
2) Bupivacaine toxicity causes-
a) Renal toxicity
b) Pulmonary toxicity
c) Cardiotoxicity
d) None
3) All of the following are effective topically
except-\
a) Procaine
b) Cocaine
c) Lidocaine
d) Amethocaine
Answer Key
1. B
2. C
3. A
1) Which of the following anesthesia is safe in
heart failure-
a) Etomidate
b) Propofol
c) Thiopentone
d) Ketamine
2) For prevention of headache suring spinal
anaesthesia-
a) Diluted solution of local anaesthetic should
be used
b) Preloading with crystalloids
c) Finer I.P. needle should be used
d) Head end should be elevated
3) True about midazolam as inducing agent –
a) Increase in BP
b) Does not produce pain an IV injection
c) Increase cerebal oxygen consumption
d) Increase peripheral vascular resistance
Answer Key
1. A
2. C
3. B
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2021
Page 12
1) Local anaesthetic in wound /ulcer
management-
a) Prilocaine
b) Chlorprocaine
c) Benzocaine
d) Bupivacaine
2) During rapid induction of anesthesia –
a) Sellick’s maneuver is not required
b) Pre-oxygenation is mandatory
c) Suxamethonium is contraindicated
d) Patient is mechanically ventilated before
endotracheal intubation
3) All are features of difficult airway except-
a) Miller’s sign
b) Micrognathia with macroglossia
c) TMJ ankylosis
d) Increased thyromental distance
Answer Key
1. C
2. A
3. D
1) Benefit of ketamine-
a) Causes decrease in BP
b) Good analgesic action
c) Decrease ICT
d) Decrease IOT
2) Local anaesthesia causing
methemoglobinemia-
a) Procaine
b) Prilocaine
c) Etodicaine
d) Ropivacaine
3) Local anaesthetic with prolonged action-
a) Procaine
b) Cocaine
c) Lidocaine
d) Dibucaine
Answer key
1. B
2. B
3. D
1) Maximum concentration for epidural block:
a) Bupivacaine
b) Lidocaine
c) Ropivacaine
d) Chlorprocaine
2) Vasoconstricator L.A.is-
a) Cocaine
b) Procaine
c) Lidocaine
d) Chlorprocaine
3) All are true about halothane exept-
a) Tachycardia
b) Hepatitis
c) Bronchodilatation
d) Uterine relaxation
Answer Key
1. D
2. A
3. A
1) All are contraindications of spinal
anaesthesia Except-
a) Bleeding disorder
b) Raised intracranial tension
c) Hypertension
d) Infection at injection site
2) The drug for OPD analgesia is-
a) Morphine
b) Pethidine
c) Fentanyl
d) Alfentanil
3) MAC of desflurane is-
a) 1.15
b) 2
c) 4
d) 6
Answer Key
1. C
2. D
3. D
1) Reduced hemoglobin absorb light in which
wavelength?
a) 660 nm
b) 940 nm
c) 320 nm
d) 440 nm
2) Hallucination is seen with?
a) Propofol
b) Sevoflurance
c) Ketamine
d) Isoflurance
3) Fatality rate with halothane hepatitis is?
a) 10-20%
b) 20-40%
c) 30-70%
d) 80-89%
4) American Society of Anesthesiologists’
classification of physical status of patient is
done for?
a) Pre operative risk assessment
b) Post operative risk assessment
c) Airway assessment
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2021
Page 13
d) Assessment of organ donor
5) Succinylcholine causes?
a) Severe hyperkalemia
b) Paraplegia
c) Liver failure
d) Renal failure
Answer key
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. A
5. A
1) Mendelson’s syndrome is due to?
a) Hypersensitivity reaction to ansthetic agent
b) Gastric aspiration
c) Faculty intubation
d) Asphyxia due too tracheal stenosis
2) Anaesthetic agent not metabolized by body
is?
a) N20
b) Gallamine
c) Sevofluorane
d) Halothane
3) Highly protein bound intravenous anesthetic
agent is?
a) Etomidate
b) Barbiturates
c) Propofol
d) Ketamine
4) Compression depth in CPR in Adults is?
a) 1 inch
b) 2 inch
c) 3 inch
d) 4 inch
5) True about laryngeal mask airway is?
a) Prevents aspiration
b) Used in oral surgeries
c) Used in laryngeal surgeries
d) Maintains airway
6) Lignocaine is used as/
a) 0.5%jelly, 1% injection
b) 1% jelly, 2% injection
c) 2% jelly, 4% injection
d) 4% jelly, 5% ijection
7) PIN index of nitrous oxide is?
a) 1-5
b) 2-5
c) 3-5
d) 1-6
8) In renal disease muscle relaxant that can be
given is?
a) Doxacurium
b) Pancuronium
c) Vencuronium
d) Gallium
9) Fastest onset skeletal muscle relaxation is?
a) Vecuronium
b) Rocuronium
c) Mevacurium
d) Atracurium
Answer Key
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. D
6. C
7. C
8. C
9. B
1) Which is most important and decisive factor
in
CPR?
a) O2 inhalation
b) Endotracheal intubation
c) Injection epinephrine
d) Defibrillation
Answer is (D)
1) Skeletal muscle relaxant of choice in liver
and renal disease is?
a) Mivacurium
b) Atracurium
c) Gallium
d) Vecuronium
2) In spinal anesthesia the drug is deposited
between?
a) Pia and arachnoid
b) Dura and arachnoid
c) Dura and vertebrae
d) Into spinal cord
3) In spinal anesthesia which fibers are affected
earliest?
a) Sensory
b) Motor
c) Sympathetic preganglionic
d) Vibration
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2021
Page 14
4) Complications of epidural anesthesia are all
EXCEPT:
a) Headache
b) Hypotension
c) DIC
d) Epidural hematoma
5) Which of the following intravenous induction
agent is most suitable for day care surgery?
a) Morphine
b) Ketamine
c) Propofol
d) Diazepam
6) Receptor responsible for malignant
hyperthermia is?
a) Nicotinic receptor
b) Ryanodine receptor
c) Muscarinic receptor
d) None
7) Concentration of adrenaline used with
Lidocaine is?
a) 1:200
b) 1:2000
c) 1:20000
d) 1:200000
8) All are amides EXCEPT;
a) Lignocaine
b) Procaine
c) Prilocaine
d) Etidocaine
9) All are related to difficult intubation
EXCEPT:
a) Miller’s sign
b) TMJ ankylosis
c) Increased thyromental distance
d) Micrognathia
Answer Key
1. B
2. A
3. C
4. C
5. C
6. B
7. D
8. B
9. C
1) Anesthetic of choice for status asthmaticus is?
a) Ketamine
b) Thiopentone
c) Ether
d)
N
2
o
2) Effect of cocaine on blood vessels is?
a) Vasoconstrictor
b) Vasodilator
c) Vasoineffective
d) First constrict then dilates
3) All statements are true about skeletal muscle
relaxants EXCEPT:
a) Mivacurium is hydrolyzed by plasma
cholinesterase
b) Rocuronium is largely excreted unchanged in
urine
c) Pancuronium blocks the uptake of nor-
epinephrine
d) Atracurium is degraded by Hoffman’s
elimination
4) Hoffman degradation is seen in which muscle
relaxant?
a) Atracurium
b) Succinylcholine
c) Gallamine
d) Pancuronium
5) Gallamine is dexcreted mainly through?
a) Bile
b) Liver
c) Kidney
d) Pseudocholinesterase
6) Local anesthetic that is not used topically is?
a) Lignocaine
b) Dibucaine
c) Tetracaine
d) Bupivacaine
7) Dose of lignocaine for spinal anesthesia is?
a) 0.5%
b) 2.5%
c) 4%
d) 5%
8) Bone marrow depression is caused by?
a) Halothane
b) Ketamine
c)
N
2
o
d) Isoflurane
9) Which muscle is most resistant to
neuromuscular blockage?
a) Diaphragm
b) Ocular
c) Adductor pollicis
d) Intercostals muscles
10) For foreign body causing sudden
chocking, most appropriate first line of
management is?
a) Tracheostomy
b) Heimlich maneuver
c) Airway insertion
d) Laryngoscopy
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2021
Page 15
Answer Key
1. A
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. D
7. D
8. C
9. A
10. B
1) Increased intracranial tension is seen with:
a) Ketamine
b) Thiopentone
c) Halothane
d) Propofol
2) Which of the following intravenous induction
agent is most suitable for day care surgery?
a) Morphine
b) Ketamine
c) Propofol
d) Diazepam
3) Color of oxygen cylinder is:
a) Black with white color
b) Blue with white color
c) Yellow with white color
d) White
4) Mendelson’s syndrome is due to?
a) Hypersensitivity reaction to anesthetic agent
b) Gastric aspiration
c) Faulty intubation
d) Asphyxia due to tracheal stenosis
5) During rapid sequence intubation in a child
after taking brief history and clinical
examination next step is:
a) Administer oxygen
b) IV anesthetic Diazepam /Ketamine
c) Preanaesthetic medication with atropine and
lignocaine
d) Analgesic injection with Fentanyl
6) Skeletal muscle relaxant of choice in liver and
renal disease is?
a) Mivacurium
b) Atracurium
c) Gallium
d) Vecuronium
Answer Key
1. A
2. C
3. A
4. B
5. A
6. B
1) Most cardio toxic local anaesthetic is?
a) Lignocaine
b) Bupivacaine
c) Prilocaine
d) Procaine
2) Anesthesia of choice for induction of
anesthesia in children is?
a) Desflurane
b) Halothane
c) Sevoflurance
d) Isoflurane
3) Anesthesia of choice for induction in day care
surgery is?
a) Propofol
b) Ketamine
c) Halothane
d) Pancuronium
4) Agent causing malignant hyperthermia?
a) Succinylcholine
b)
N
2
O
c) Ether
d) Verapamil
5) Fixed oxygen delivery device is?
a) Venturi mask
b) Nasal cannula
c) Nasal mask
d) Non brathing mask
6) Foley’s catheter of size 16 F means?
a) 16mm diameter at the tip
b) 16 mm inner diameter
c) 16 mm outer diameter
d) 16 mm circumference
7) Mapelson circuit used in chidren is?
a) Mapelson A
b) Mapelson D
c) Mapelson C
d) Ayers T tube
Answer Key
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. D
7. D
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2019
Page 16
IMAGE BASED:
1. What is the gauge of blue i.v
canula?(DIAGRAM-1)
2. ORANGE venti mask deliver how much
concentration of oxygen?
3. This cylinder contains---
4. Who is this scientist?
5. The diagram shows---
6. What is this?
7. What is this?
8. Identify the device
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2019
Page 17
9. What is the pin index of this gas?
10. Identify the device
11. Identify the devic
12. Identify the device
13. Identify the device
14. Identify the device
15. Identify the device
16. Identify the device
ANAESTHESIA MCQ
2019
Page 18
ANSWER:
1) 22G
2) 31%
3) Nitrous oxide
4)
5) First public demonstration of ether
anesthesia was given by Morton
Q
in 1846 on
Oct. 16
th
6) Guedel airways
7) Oxygen flow meter
8) Tracheostomy mask
9) 2,5
10) Ambu bag (Artificial Manual Breathing
Unit)
11) Nasal canula
12) Simple facemask (variable flow)
13) Reservoir Mask (Non-rebreathe Mask)
14) Laryngoscope
15) ET tube
16) LMA
First public
demonstration of ether
anesthesia was given
by
William Thomas
Green (WTG)
Morton
Q
in 1846 on
Oct. 16
th